Dermatology flashcards for NEET PG
78 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 78 cards pick out single facts in Dermatology that the exam keeps returning to: Papulosquamous disorders, Blistering disorders, Leprosy, Skin tumours, Drug reactions, Bullous disorders and more. Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in Dermatology: Confusing blistering diseases. Read the Dermatology study guide.
1 · Papulosquamous disorders
Signs of psoriasis?
Show the answer
Auspitz sign (pinpoint bleeding), Koebner phenomenon, nail pitting.
Memory hook: Silvery scale.
2 · Blistering disorders
Pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid?
Show the answer
Pemphigus: flaccid bullae, Nikolsky positive, desmoglein 3, intraepidermal. Pemphigoid: tense bullae, Nikolsky negative, subepidermal.
Memory hook: Pemphigus = suprabasal split.
3 · Leprosy
Lepromin test in tuberculoid vs lepromatous leprosy?
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Positive in tuberculoid; negative in lepromatous. It is prognostic, not diagnostic.
Memory hook: Strong immunity, positive test.
4 · Skin tumours
Commonest skin cancer and its look?
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Basal cell carcinoma: pearly papule with telangiectasia and rolled edge; rarely metastasises.
Memory hook: Rodent ulcer.
5 · Drug reactions
Common triggers of SJS/TEN?
Show the answer
Carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, allopurinol, sulphonamides, nevirapine.
Memory hook: Stop the drug at once.
6 · Drug reactions
Which HLA allele is linked to carbamazepine-induced SJS/TEN in some Asian populations?
Show the answer
HLA-B*15:02; testing is advised before starting carbamazepine in at-risk groups.
Memory hook: Genotype first in at-risk groups.
7 · Papulosquamous disorders
What is the Koebner phenomenon and where is it seen?
Show the answer
New lesions at sites of skin trauma, as in psoriasis, lichen planus, vitiligo and warts.
Memory hook: Isomorphic response.
8 · Bullous disorders
Dermatitis herpetiformis is linked to which condition and treated with what?
Show the answer
Coeliac disease; dapsone and a gluten-free diet.
Memory hook: Itchy blisters on extensor surfaces.
9 · Dermato-oncology
What does the ABCDE rule for melanoma stand for?
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Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter over 6 mm, Evolving.
Memory hook: Any change in a mole needs review.
10 · Dermato-oncology
Where does basal cell carcinoma most often occur?
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On sun-exposed skin, especially the face above a line from the mouth to the ear.
Memory hook: Rarely on the palms and soles.
11 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which organism causes impetigo?
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Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes; honey-coloured crusts are classic.
Memory hook: Honey crust.
12 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which toxin causes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
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Exfoliative toxin (epidermolytic toxin) of S. aureus, cleaving desmoglein 1 in the granular layer.
Memory hook: Superficial split.
13 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which organism causes erythrasma and how does it fluoresce?
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Corynebacterium minutissimum; coral-red fluorescence under Wood's lamp.
Memory hook: Coral red.
14 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the causative agent of pitted keratolysis?
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Corynebacterium (also Kytococcus) species causing pits on the soles in moist feet.
15 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which virus causes molluscum contagiosum and what is the histology?
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A poxvirus; umbilicated pearly papules with molluscum (Henderson-Patterson) bodies.
Memory hook: Umbilicated papule.
16 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which HPV types commonly cause anogenital warts?
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HPV 6 and 11 (low risk); types 16 and 18 are high-risk oncogenic.
Memory hook: 6 and 11 warts.
17 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the Tzanck smear finding in herpes simplex and varicella?
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Multinucleated giant cells.
Memory hook: Giant cells.
18 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the drug of choice for herpes zoster in adults?
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Oral acyclovir, valacyclovir or famciclovir, ideally started within 72 hours.
19 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the commonest complication of herpes zoster in the elderly?
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Post-herpetic neuralgia.
20 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which fungus causes pityriasis versicolor and what is the typical microscopy?
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Malassezia furfur; 'spaghetti and meatballs' hyphae and spores on KOH mount.
Memory hook: Spaghetti and meatballs.
21 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the Wood's lamp finding in Microsporum capitis infection?
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Green fluorescence of infected hairs.
22 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which drug is preferred for tinea capitis?
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Oral griseofulvin or terbinafine; topical therapy alone is inadequate.
23 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the investigation of choice to demonstrate dermatophytes in skin scrapings?
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10-20% KOH mount showing branching septate hyphae.
24 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the drug of choice for scabies in adults?
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Topical 5% permethrin applied from neck down, repeated after one week; oral ivermectin is an alternative.
Memory hook: Burrow sign.
25 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the pathognomonic lesion of scabies?
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The burrow, a short linear tunnel with a vesicle at the end, commonly in finger webs.
26 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which organism causes cutaneous larva migrans?
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Ancylostoma braziliense (dog and cat hookworm), producing serpiginous creeping eruption.
Memory hook: Creeping eruption.
27 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
What is the causative agent of kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL)?
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Leishmania donovani, appearing as hypopigmented macules and nodules after treated visceral leishmaniasis.
28 · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic
Which bacteria cause cellulitis commonly?
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Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus; erysipelas is more superficial with a raised, sharply demarcated edge.
29 · Papulosquamous disorders
What is the classical lesion of lichen planus?
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Purple, polygonal, pruritic, flat-topped papules and plaques.
Memory hook: Purple polygonal.
30 · Papulosquamous disorders
What are Wickham's striae?
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Fine white lacy lines on the surface of lichen planus papules and oral mucosa.
Memory hook: Lacy white lines.
31 · Papulosquamous disorders
How is pityriasis rosea usually managed and what is its first sign?
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It is self-limiting in 6-8 weeks and needs only symptomatic care; a herald patch precedes a Christmas-tree distribution.
Memory hook: Herald patch.
32 · Papulosquamous disorders
Why should systemic corticosteroids be avoided in psoriasis?
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Their withdrawal may precipitate pustular or erythrodermic psoriasis.
33 · Papulosquamous disorders
Which antimetabolite used in psoriasis needs liver monitoring and folic acid supplementation?
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Methotrexate, a folate antagonist.
34 · Papulosquamous disorders
What are the histological features of psoriasis?
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Parakeratosis, acanthosis with elongated rete ridges, Munro microabscesses and thinning of the suprapapillary plate.
35 · Papulosquamous disorders
Where does seborrhoeic dermatitis typically occur?
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Sebum-rich areas: scalp, nasolabial folds, eyebrows and presternal area.
36 · Papulosquamous disorders
Which skin condition shows Dennie-Morgan folds?
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Atopic dermatitis: extra infra-orbital eyelid folds.
37 · Papulosquamous disorders
What is the investigation of choice for allergic contact dermatitis?
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Patch test (type IV hypersensitivity), read at 48 hours and again at 72-96 hours.
38 · Vesiculobullous disorders
Which antibody is present in pemphigus vulgaris?
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IgG against desmoglein 3 (and 1 in mucocutaneous disease), seen as a fishnet pattern on direct immunofluorescence.
Memory hook: Fishnet.
39 · Vesiculobullous disorders
What is the Asboe-Hansen sign?
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Lateral extension of a bulla on applying pressure on it.
40 · Vesiculobullous disorders
What is the direct immunofluorescence pattern in bullous pemphigoid?
Show the answer
Linear IgG and C3 deposition along the basement membrane zone.
Memory hook: Linear.
41 · Vesiculobullous disorders
Which antigens are targeted in bullous pemphigoid?
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BP230 (BPAG1) and BP180 (BPAG2, collagen XVII).
42 · Vesiculobullous disorders
What is the direct immunofluorescence finding in dermatitis herpetiformis?
Show the answer
Granular IgA deposits in the dermal papillae.
Memory hook: Granular IgA.
43 · Vesiculobullous disorders
Which blistering disorder shows linear IgA along the basement membrane and is drug-triggered by vancomycin?
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Linear IgA bullous dermatosis, with a 'string of pearls' sign in children.
Memory hook: String of pearls.
44 · Vesiculobullous disorders
What is the commonest site of pemphigus foliaceus lesions?
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Seborrhoeic areas such as scalp, face and chest, without mucosal involvement.
45 · Vesiculobullous disorders
Which antibody is seen in epidermolysis bullosa acquisita?
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IgG against type VII collagen of anchoring fibrils.
46 · Vesiculobullous disorders
What is the standard treatment for pemphigus vulgaris?
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Systemic corticosteroids, with rituximab increasingly used as first-line.
47 · Leprosy
Which organism causes leprosy and what is its unique feature?
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Mycobacterium leprae; it cannot be cultured in vitro but grows in the mouse foot pad and armadillo.
48 · Leprosy
Which nerve is most commonly thickened in leprosy?
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Ulnar nerve, followed by the greater auricular and common peroneal nerves.
49 · Leprosy
What is the WHO field classification of leprosy?
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Paucibacillary: 1-5 skin lesions; multibacillary: more than 5 lesions, or a positive slit-skin smear.
50 · Leprosy
What is the multidrug therapy for multibacillary leprosy?
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Rifampicin, clofazimine and dapsone for 12 months.
Memory hook: RCD for 12.
51 · Leprosy
What is the multidrug therapy for paucibacillary leprosy?
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Rifampicin and dapsone for 6 months.
52 · Leprosy
Which type of lepra reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type 1 (reversal reaction), a type IV hypersensitivity.
53 · Leprosy
What is the immunological basis of erythema nodosum leprosum?
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Type 2 reaction: immune complex-mediated (type III hypersensitivity), seen in lepromatous disease.
54 · Leprosy
Which drug is used for severe ENL?
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Thalidomide (avoid in pregnancy) or corticosteroids.
55 · Leprosy
When is the late Mitsuda reaction of the lepromin test read?
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At 21 days; it reflects cell-mediated immunity.
56 · Leprosy
What is the histology of lepromatous leprosy?
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Foamy macrophages (Virchow cells) with numerous acid-fast bacilli and a clear subepidermal grenz zone.
Memory hook: Grenz zone.
57 · Sexually transmitted infections
Which organism causes syphilis and what is the primary lesion?
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Treponema pallidum; a painless indurated ulcer, the chancre.
Memory hook: Painless.
58 · Sexually transmitted infections
Which investigation visualises T. pallidum from a primary chancre?
Show the answer
Dark-field microscopy.
59 · Sexually transmitted infections
What is the drug of choice for syphilis?
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Benzathine penicillin G intramuscularly.
60 · Sexually transmitted infections
What is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
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Fever and worsening symptoms within hours of starting antibiotics for syphilis, due to endotoxin-like release.
61 · Sexually transmitted infections
Which organism causes chancroid and what is its ulcer like?
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Haemophilus ducreyi; a painful, soft ulcer with ragged edges and tender inguinal bubo.
Memory hook: Painful, soft.
62 · Sexually transmitted infections
What is the causative organism of lymphogranuloma venereum?
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Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1-L3, with a 'groove sign' of inguinal nodes.
63 · Sexually transmitted infections
What is the causative organism of granuloma inguinale and its characteristic body?
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Klebsiella granulomatis; Donovan bodies in macrophages on tissue smear.
Memory hook: Donovan.
64 · Sexually transmitted infections
What is the drug of choice for genital herpes first episode?
Show the answer
Oral acyclovir, valacyclovir or famciclovir.
65 · Pigmentary disorders
Which is the commonest form of vitiligo?
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Non-segmental (generalised), an autoimmune loss of melanocytes.
66 · Pigmentary disorders
How does the Koebner phenomenon appear in vitiligo?
Show the answer
Depigmented white macules develop at sites of trauma.
67 · Pigmentary disorders
Which pigmentary disorder presents as symmetrical facial hyperpigmentation?
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Melasma, associated with pregnancy, oral contraceptives and sun exposure.
68 · Pigmentary disorders
What is the first-line topical depigmenting agent for melasma?
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Hydroquinone, often in a triple combination with tretinoin and a steroid.
69 · Pigmentary disorders
What is the enzyme defect in oculocutaneous albinism type 1?
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Tyrosinase deficiency.
70 · Pigmentary disorders
What determines human skin colour?
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Melanosome type, size and distribution in keratinocytes, not the number of melanocytes, which is similar in all races.
71 · Drug reactions
What are common causes of fixed drug eruption?
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Tetracyclines, sulfonamides and NSAIDs; it recurs at the same site, leaving hyperpigmentation.
Memory hook: Same spot.
72 · Drug reactions
What is the main difference between SJS and TEN?
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Body surface area detached: under 10% in SJS, over 30% in TEN, 10-30% overlap.
73 · Drug reactions
Which syndrome is characterised by rash, fever, eosinophilia and organ involvement weeks after starting a drug?
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DRESS syndrome, often from anticonvulsants or allopurinol.
74 · Drug reactions
What is the Nikolsky sign in SJS/TEN?
Show the answer
Positive: epidermis separates with lateral pressure on apparently normal skin.
75 · Skin tumours
Which tumour shows keratin pearls on histology?
Show the answer
Squamous cell carcinoma.
76 · Skin tumours
What is the most important prognostic factor in melanoma?
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Breslow thickness, the vertical depth of invasion.
77 · Skin tumours
Which premalignant lesion is a result of chronic sun exposure?
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Actinic keratosis, a rough scaly patch that may progress to squamous cell carcinoma.
78 · Skin tumours
Which tumour is associated with Marjolin ulcer?
Show the answer
Squamous cell carcinoma arising in a chronic scar or ulcer.
Common questions
How many Dermatology flashcards are there?
78 cards across 11 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the Dermatology deck?
Papulosquamous disorders, Blistering disorders, Leprosy, Skin tumours, Drug reactions, Bullous disorders, Dermato-oncology, Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic, Vesiculobullous disorders, Sexually transmitted infections, Pigmentary disorders.
Is the Dermatology deck free?
Dermatology opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
32 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many Dermatology cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the Dermatology cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.