General Medicine flashcards for NEET PG
64 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 64 cards pick out single facts in General Medicine that the exam keeps returning to: Respiratory medicine, Electrolytes, Neurology, Cardiology, Nephrology, Emergency medicine and more. For each disease know the classic presentation, the best test, and the first-line treatment. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in General Medicine: Choosing the most thorough option over the best first step. Read the General Medicine study guide.
1 · Respiratory medicine
Commonest cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
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Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Memory hook: Klebsiella suggests alcohol use.
2 · Electrolytes
ECG changes in hyperkalaemia, in order?
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Peaked T waves, PR prolongation, loss of P waves, wide QRS, sine wave. Give IV calcium to protect the heart.
Memory hook: Tall T first.
3 · Neurology
Triad of Wernicke encephalopathy and first treatment?
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Confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia; give IV thiamine before or with glucose.
Memory hook: Thiamine first, then glucose.
4 · Cardiology
Classic symptom triad of aortic stenosis?
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Angina, syncope, heart failure.
Memory hook: Average survival falls once symptoms start.
5 · Cardiology
Which biomarker is best for MI, and which is best for reinfarction?
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Cardiac troponin for MI; CK-MB for reinfarction because it falls sooner.
Memory hook: Troponin stays up for days.
6 · Cardiology
How soon does troponin rise after myocardial injury, and how long does it stay up?
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It rises in 3 to 6 hours, peaks around 12 to 24 hours and remains elevated for 7 to 14 days.
Memory hook: Useful late, unlike CK-MB.
7 · Nephrology
What is the pattern of SIADH?
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Euvolaemic hyponatraemia with low serum osmolality and inappropriately concentrated urine.
Memory hook: Water excess, not sodium loss.
8 · Neurology
What does the CSF typically show in acute bacterial meningitis?
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Turbid fluid with raised neutrophils and protein and a low glucose; opening pressure is raised.
Memory hook: Bacteria eat the sugar.
9 · Emergency medicine
What is given first for hyperkalaemia with ECG changes?
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Intravenous calcium gluconate to stabilise the myocardium, then insulin with glucose.
Memory hook: Calcium protects; insulin lowers.
10 · Infectious diseases
Which are the major Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?
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Positive blood cultures with typical organisms, and evidence of endocardial involvement on echocardiography or new valvular regurgitation.
Memory hook: Two major, or one major and three minor.
11 · Cardiology
Which ECG finding is typical of acute pericarditis?
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Diffuse concave-upward ST elevation with PR depression.
Memory hook: Saddle-shaped, everywhere.
12 · Cardiology
What is the first-line drug class for rate control in stable atrial fibrillation without heart failure?
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Beta-blockers or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem).
Memory hook: Slow the AV node.
13 · Cardiology
Which murmur is heard in mitral stenosis?
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Low-pitched mid-diastolic rumble with an opening snap, best heard at the apex in left lateral position.
Memory hook: Snap then rumble.
14 · Cardiology
What is the characteristic pulse in aortic regurgitation?
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Collapsing (water-hammer) pulse with wide pulse pressure.
Memory hook: Big up, fast down.
15 · Cardiology
Which ECG leads show ST elevation in an inferior wall MI, and which artery is usually involved?
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Leads II, III and aVF; usually the right coronary artery.
Memory hook: Inferior is II, III, aVF.
16 · Cardiology
Which drug is avoided in inferior MI with right ventricular involvement?
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Nitrates (and other preload-reducing drugs), because the RV is preload dependent.
Memory hook: Give fluids, not nitrates.
17 · Cardiology
What is pulsus paradoxus?
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An inspiratory fall in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg, classically in cardiac tamponade.
Memory hook: Pressure dips on breathing in.
18 · Respiratory medicine
Which spirometry pattern defines obstructive lung disease?
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Reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (below 0.7) with air trapping.
Memory hook: Ratio falls, FVC may be normal.
19 · Respiratory medicine
Which intervention improves survival in COPD with chronic severe hypoxaemia?
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Long-term oxygen therapy for at least 15 hours a day when PaO2 is 55 mmHg or below.
Memory hook: Oxygen as a drug.
20 · Respiratory medicine
What is the typical ABG in an acute severe asthma attack that signals impending respiratory failure?
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A normal or raised PaCO2, instead of the expected low value.
Memory hook: Normal CO2 is ominous.
21 · Respiratory medicine
What does Light's criteria define?
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An exudative pleural effusion: pleural to serum protein above 0.5, pleural to serum LDH above 0.6, or pleural LDH above two thirds of the upper limit of serum normal.
Memory hook: Pleural exudate rule.
22 · Respiratory medicine
What is the investigation of choice for a suspected pulmonary embolism in a haemodynamically stable patient?
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CT pulmonary angiography.
Memory hook: CTPA.
23 · Respiratory medicine
Which pleural fluid finding suggests tuberculosis?
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Lymphocyte-predominant exudate with high adenosine deaminase (ADA).
Memory hook: ADA up in TB.
24 · Respiratory medicine
Which type of respiratory failure has a raised PaCO2?
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Type 2 (hypercapnic) failure, with PaO2 below 60 and PaCO2 above 50 mmHg.
Memory hook: Two means CO2 too.
25 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
Which serological marker indicates immunity from hepatitis B vaccination alone?
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Isolated anti-HBs positivity, with negative anti-HBc.
Memory hook: Vaccine gives only anti-HBs.
26 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
Which drug is first line to prevent variceal rebleeding?
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Non-selective beta-blocker (propranolol, nadolol) with endoscopic band ligation.
Memory hook: Block and band.
27 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
What is the serum-ascites albumin gradient in portal hypertensive ascites?
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SAAG of 1.1 g/dL or more.
Memory hook: High gradient means portal.
28 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
What is the diagnostic criterion for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
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Ascitic fluid neutrophil count of 250 cells/mm3 or more.
Memory hook: 250 is the line.
29 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
Which antibody is typical of primary biliary cholangitis?
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Antimitochondrial antibody (AMA).
Memory hook: Middle-aged woman, itch, AMA.
30 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
Which inflammatory bowel disease shows skip lesions and transmural inflammation?
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Crohn's disease.
Memory hook: Crohn's skips.
31 · Gastroenterology and hepatology
Which test confirms Helicobacter pylori eradication non-invasively?
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Urea breath test or stool antigen test, at least 4 weeks after therapy and 2 weeks off PPIs.
Memory hook: Breath test after a gap.
32 · Nephrology and electrolytes
What is the typical urine finding in acute tubular necrosis?
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Muddy brown granular casts with urine sodium above 40 mEq/L and low urine osmolality.
Memory hook: Muddy brown casts.
33 · Nephrology and electrolytes
Which test helps differentiate prerenal azotaemia from intrinsic renal failure?
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Fractional excretion of sodium: below 1% is prerenal, above 2% is intrinsic.
Memory hook: Prerenal holds sodium.
34 · Nephrology and electrolytes
Which glomerular disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
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Minimal change disease, with effacement of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy.
Memory hook: Steroid-responsive.
35 · Nephrology and electrolytes
Which ECG change is classic for hypokalaemia?
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U waves with ST depression and flattened T waves.
Memory hook: U appears when K drops.
36 · Nephrology and electrolytes
Which type of renal tubular acidosis causes hyperkalaemia?
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Type 4 (hypoaldosteronism).
Memory hook: Four is the high-K one.
37 · Nephrology and electrolytes
What is the definition of acute kidney injury by creatinine criteria (KDIGO)?
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Rise of 0.3 mg/dL or more within 48 hours, or 1.5 times baseline within 7 days.
Memory hook: 0.3 in 48 hours.
38 · Endocrinology and diabetes
What is the diagnostic HbA1c cut-off for diabetes mellitus?
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6.5% or above, confirmed on repeat testing unless symptomatic with clear hyperglycaemia.
Memory hook: Six and a half.
39 · Endocrinology and diabetes
What is the treatment of choice for Graves disease ophthalmopathy that is sight-threatening?
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High-dose intravenous glucocorticoids, with orbital decompression if no response.
Memory hook: Steroids first.
40 · Endocrinology and diabetes
Which test confirms Cushing syndrome biochemically as a first screen?
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Overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test, late-night salivary cortisol or 24-hour urinary free cortisol.
Memory hook: Failure to suppress cortisol.
41 · Endocrinology and diabetes
What is the classic biochemical pattern of primary hyperparathyroidism?
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High calcium with raised or inappropriately normal PTH and low phosphate.
Memory hook: Calcium up, phosphate down.
42 · Endocrinology and diabetes
Which drug is first line for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes unless contraindicated?
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Metformin.
Memory hook: Lowers hepatic glucose output.
43 · Endocrinology and diabetes
What is the treatment of thyroid storm to block peripheral T4 to T3 conversion?
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Propranolol and propylthiouracil, with hydrocortisone.
Memory hook: PTU also blocks conversion.
44 · Endocrinology and diabetes
Which adrenal disorder gives hypertension, hypokalaemia and low renin?
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Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome).
Memory hook: High aldosterone, low renin.
45 · Haematology and oncology
What is the earliest laboratory change in iron deficiency?
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Reduced serum ferritin.
Memory hook: Stores fall first.
46 · Haematology and oncology
Which cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma?
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Reed-Sternberg cells, CD15 and CD30 positive.
Memory hook: Owl-eye cells.
47 · Haematology and oncology
What is the first-line therapy for immune thrombocytopenia in adults needing treatment?
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Corticosteroids, with IVIG or anti-D for rapid rise when needed.
Memory hook: Steroids first.
48 · Haematology and oncology
What is the key feature of DIC on coagulation tests?
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Prolonged PT and aPTT, low platelets and fibrinogen, and raised D-dimer.
Memory hook: Consumption of everything.
49 · Neurology
What is the time window for intravenous thrombolysis in acute ischaemic stroke?
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Within 4.5 hours of symptom onset, after excluding haemorrhage on non-contrast CT.
Memory hook: Four and a half.
50 · Neurology
Which investigation is first in suspected acute stroke?
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Non-contrast CT head, to exclude haemorrhage.
Memory hook: Bleed or clot first.
51 · Neurology
Which finding on CSF analysis is classic for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
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Albuminocytological dissociation: raised protein with normal cell count.
Memory hook: Protein high, cells normal.
52 · Neurology
Which antibody is found in myasthenia gravis, and which drug gives symptomatic relief?
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Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody; pyridostigmine.
Memory hook: Fatigable weakness.
53 · Rheumatology
Which antibody is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
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Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP).
Memory hook: Specific, and early.
54 · Rheumatology
Which antibody is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
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Anti-double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies.
Memory hook: dsDNA tracks nephritis.
55 · Rheumatology
What is the first-line disease-modifying drug in rheumatoid arthritis?
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Methotrexate.
Memory hook: Anchor DMARD.
56 · Rheumatology
What crystals are seen in gout and what is their birefringence?
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Monosodium urate; needle-shaped and negatively birefringent.
Memory hook: Yellow when parallel.
57 · Infectious diseases
Which investigation confirms Plasmodium falciparum infection rapidly at the bedside?
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Rapid antigen test (HRP-2), with thick and thin smear for confirmation.
Memory hook: Smear remains gold standard.
58 · Infectious diseases
What is the diagnostic test in the first week of typhoid fever?
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Blood culture.
Memory hook: Early week, blood culture.
59 · Infectious diseases
What is the first-line treatment for leptospirosis in mild disease?
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Doxycycline; penicillin or ceftriaxone for severe disease.
Memory hook: Weil disease is severe.
60 · Infectious diseases
What is the first-line antibiotic for scrub typhus?
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Doxycycline.
Memory hook: Eschar and fever.
61 · Infectious diseases
Which dengue warning sign calls for close observation and fluids?
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Abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, mucosal bleeding, lethargy or rising haematocrit with falling platelets.
Memory hook: Plasma leak is the danger.
62 · Emergency and critical care
Which fluid is first in diabetic ketoacidosis?
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Isotonic 0.9% saline, followed by insulin once potassium is above 3.3 mEq/L.
Memory hook: Fluids, then insulin.
63 · Emergency and critical care
What is the shockable rhythm set in cardiac arrest?
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Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia; give an immediate defibrillation shock.
Memory hook: Shock VF and VT.
64 · Emergency and critical care
Which acid-base pattern is typical of salicylate poisoning in adults?
Show the answer
Mixed respiratory alkalosis and high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
Memory hook: Tinnitus and tachypnoea.
Common questions
How many General Medicine flashcards are there?
64 cards across 13 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the General Medicine deck?
Respiratory medicine, Electrolytes, Neurology, Cardiology, Nephrology, Emergency medicine, Infectious diseases, Gastroenterology and hepatology, Nephrology and electrolytes, Endocrinology and diabetes, Haematology and oncology, Rheumatology, and more.
Is the General Medicine deck free?
General Medicine opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
64 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many General Medicine cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the General Medicine cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.