Orthopaedics flashcards for NEET PG
77 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 77 cards pick out single facts in Orthopaedics that the exam keeps returning to: Upper limb fractures, Fractures in children, Wrist fractures, Bone tumours, Paediatric orthopaedics, Fractures and more. Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in Orthopaedics: Mixing eponymous fractures. Read the Orthopaedics study guide.
1 · Upper limb fractures
Classic complication of scaphoid waist fracture?
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Avascular necrosis of the proximal pole and non-union, because of retrograde blood supply.
Memory hook: Snuffbox tenderness.
2 · Fractures in children
Earliest sign of compartment syndrome and Volkmann's contracture?
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Pain on passive stretch of the affected muscles, out of proportion to the injury.
Memory hook: Needs urgent decompression.
3 · Wrist fractures
Colles' vs Smith's fracture?
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Colles: distal radius, dorsal displacement, 'dinner fork'. Smith: volar displacement, 'garden spade'.
Memory hook: Smith is the reverse Colles.
4 · Bone tumours
Radiological signs of osteosarcoma vs Ewing sarcoma?
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Osteosarcoma: sunburst, Codman's triangle. Ewing: onion-peel.
Memory hook: Osteosarcoma at the knee.
5 · Paediatric orthopaedics
Who gets slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
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Obese adolescents, often with knee pain; limited internal rotation of the hip.
Memory hook: Always examine the hip.
6 · Fractures
What is the classic triad of fat embolism syndrome, and when does it appear?
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Respiratory distress, neurological change and a petechial rash, usually 24 to 72 hours after a long-bone fracture such as the femur.
Memory hook: Petechiae on the chest and axillae.
7 · Fractures
Which nerve is most often injured in a humeral shaft fracture?
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The radial nerve, giving wrist drop.
Memory hook: Spiral groove.
8 · Dislocations
What is the limb position in posterior dislocation of the hip?
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Flexed, adducted and internally rotated, with the leg shortened.
Memory hook: Dashboard injury.
9 · Gait
What does a positive Trendelenburg sign indicate?
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Weakness of the gluteus medius and minimus (superior gluteal nerve) on the stance side.
Memory hook: Pelvis drops on the opposite side.
10 · Infections
Which imaging is most sensitive for early osteomyelitis?
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MRI; plain films are normal for the first 10 to 14 days.
Memory hook: Bone changes lag behind symptoms.
11 · Fractures and dislocations
Which nerve is injured in anterior shoulder dislocation?
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The axillary nerve, with loss of sensation over the regimental-badge area.
Memory hook: Test the badge area.
12 · Fractures and dislocations
What is the limb position in a displaced femoral neck fracture?
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Shortened and externally rotated.
Memory hook: Leg looks short and turned out.
13 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a Monteggia fracture?
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Fracture of the proximal ulna with dislocation of the radial head.
Memory hook: Monteggia: Moves the radial head.
14 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a Galeazzi fracture?
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Fracture of the radial shaft with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint.
Memory hook: Galeazzi: Gone distal.
15 · Fractures and dislocations
Which artery is endangered in a supracondylar humerus fracture?
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The brachial artery, risking Volkmann's ischaemic contracture.
Memory hook: Check the radial pulse.
16 · Fractures and dislocations
Which nerve is injured in a fracture of the fibular neck?
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The common peroneal nerve, causing foot drop.
Memory hook: Cannot dorsiflex.
17 · Fractures and dislocations
Which nerve is injured in a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
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The ulnar nerve.
Memory hook: Funny bone.
18 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a Bennett's fracture?
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Intra-articular fracture-dislocation of the base of the first metacarpal.
Memory hook: Thumb base.
19 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a boxer's fracture?
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Fracture of the neck of the fifth metacarpal.
Memory hook: Punching a wall.
20 · Fractures and dislocations
Which fracture classification grades open fractures?
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The Gustilo-Anderson classification (types I, II, IIIA, IIIB, IIIC).
Memory hook: IIIC means arterial injury needing repair.
21 · Fractures and dislocations
Which fracture classification is used for physeal injuries in children?
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The Salter-Harris classification, types I to V.
22 · Fractures and dislocations
Which Salter-Harris type has the worst prognosis for growth?
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Type V, a crush injury of the physis.
Memory hook: Often diagnosed late.
23 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a Jones fracture?
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Fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction, prone to non-union.
Memory hook: Poor blood supply.
24 · Fractures and dislocations
What is a stress (march) fracture most commonly seen in?
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The second and third metatarsal shafts.
Memory hook: Military recruits.
25 · Fractures and dislocations
What is the Ottawa ankle rule used for?
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Deciding whether an ankle injury needs radiography, based on malleolar or midfoot bone tenderness and inability to bear weight.
26 · Fractures and dislocations
Which fracture of the clavicle region is most common?
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Middle third of the clavicle.
Memory hook: Weakest point.
27 · Peripheral nerve injuries
What deformity follows a radial nerve injury?
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Wrist drop.
Memory hook: Radial is the extensor nerve.
28 · Peripheral nerve injuries
What deformity follows a low ulnar nerve injury?
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Claw hand (ulnar claw), worse in a low lesion, with a positive Froment's sign.
Memory hook: Ulnar paradox: low lesion is clawed more.
29 · Peripheral nerve injuries
What does Froment's sign test?
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Adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve): the thumb flexes at the interphalangeal joint when gripping paper.
30 · Peripheral nerve injuries
What deformity follows a high median nerve injury?
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Pointing (benediction) hand: index and middle fingers cannot flex when making a fist.
Memory hook: Benediction sign.
31 · Peripheral nerve injuries
What is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy?
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Carpal tunnel syndrome, from median nerve compression at the wrist.
32 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Which clinical tests are used for carpal tunnel syndrome?
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Phalen's test and Tinel's sign; nerve conduction studies confirm.
33 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Which nerve injury causes winging of the scapula?
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Long thoracic nerve injury (serratus anterior paralysis).
Memory hook: Serratus anterior holds the scapula flat.
34 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Which brachial plexus injury causes the waiter's tip posture?
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Erb's palsy, an upper trunk (C5-C6) injury.
35 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Which brachial plexus injury causes a claw hand and Horner's syndrome?
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Klumpke's palsy, a lower trunk (C8-T1) injury.
36 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Name the three classes of nerve injury in Seddon's classification.
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Neurapraxia, axonotmesis and neurotmesis.
Memory hook: Least to most severe.
37 · Peripheral nerve injuries
Which Seddon class recovers completely without surgery?
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Neurapraxia: conduction block with an intact axon.
38 · Bone and joint infections
Which organism most commonly causes acute osteomyelitis?
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Staphylococcus aureus.
39 · Bone and joint infections
Which organism causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease characteristically?
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Salmonella, along with Staphylococcus aureus.
40 · Bone and joint infections
Which part of a long bone is most often affected in haematogenous osteomyelitis in children?
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The metaphysis, because of sluggish blood flow in looped vessels.
41 · Bone and joint infections
What is a sequestrum?
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A piece of dead bone separated from living bone, seen in chronic osteomyelitis.
42 · Bone and joint infections
What is an involucrum?
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New bone formed around the sequestrum.
Memory hook: Involucrum Involves (surrounds).
43 · Bone and joint infections
What is Brodie's abscess?
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A subacute localised bone abscess, usually in the metaphysis, with a sclerotic rim.
44 · Bone and joint infections
Which joint is most commonly affected in tuberculosis of bone and joint?
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The spine, then the hip and knee.
45 · Bone and joint infections
Which radiographic feature is characteristic of tuberculous arthritis?
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Periarticular osteopenia with marginal erosions and slow narrowing of joint space.
Memory hook: Phemister's triad.
46 · Bone and joint infections
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in adults and children?
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Staphylococcus aureus.
47 · Bone and joint infections
What is the treatment of septic arthritis?
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Urgent joint drainage or washout plus intravenous antibiotics.
Memory hook: A surgical emergency.
48 · Bone tumours
What is the most common primary malignant bone tumour?
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Osteosarcoma (excluding myeloma).
49 · Bone tumours
Which tumour is most common in the metaphysis of the distal femur and proximal tibia?
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Osteosarcoma.
50 · Bone tumours
Which translocation is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma?
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t(11;22), producing the EWS-FLI1 fusion.
51 · Bone tumours
Which tumour arises in the epiphysis of long bones in adults and shows a soap-bubble appearance?
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Giant cell tumour of bone.
Memory hook: Soap bubble, knee.
52 · Bone tumours
What is the most common benign bone tumour?
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Osteochondroma (exostosis).
53 · Bone tumours
What is the classic presentation of osteoid osteoma?
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Night pain relieved by NSAIDs, with a radiolucent nidus and surrounding sclerosis.
Memory hook: Aspirin relieves it.
54 · Bone tumours
Which tumour has a chicken-wire calcification on histology?
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Chondroblastoma, arising in the epiphysis of adolescents.
55 · Bone tumours
Which cartilage tumour in the hands is the most common?
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Enchondroma.
Memory hook: Ollier disease is multiple enchondromas.
56 · Paediatric orthopaedics
What is the most common type of congenital talipes?
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Congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot).
Memory hook: CAVE: Cavus, Adductus, Varus, Equinus.
57 · Paediatric orthopaedics
What is the first-line treatment of clubfoot?
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The Ponseti method of serial casting, then Achilles tenotomy and bracing.
58 · Paediatric orthopaedics
Which tests screen for developmental dysplasia of the hip in newborns?
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Ortolani and Barlow tests.
Memory hook: Ortolani reduces, Barlow dislocates.
59 · Paediatric orthopaedics
Which investigation is preferred for developmental dysplasia of the hip before 4 to 6 months?
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Ultrasound.
Memory hook: Ossification centre not yet visible on X-ray.
60 · Paediatric orthopaedics
What is Perthes disease?
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Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head in children aged about 4 to 8, more often in boys.
61 · Paediatric orthopaedics
What is Klein's line used for?
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Diagnosing slipped capital femoral epiphysis: the line along the superior femoral neck fails to cross the epiphysis.
62 · Paediatric orthopaedics
What causes torticollis in an infant?
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Contracture of the sternocleidomastoid, with a firm lump (sternomastoid tumour).
63 · Spine
What is the most common cause of low back pain with sciatica?
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Prolapsed intervertebral disc, most often at L4-L5 or L5-S1.
64 · Spine
What is the straight leg raising test used for?
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Detecting L5 or S1 nerve root tension from a disc prolapse.
65 · Spine
What are the red flag features of cauda equina syndrome?
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Saddle anaesthesia, bladder and bowel dysfunction and bilateral leg weakness.
Memory hook: Surgical emergency.
66 · Spine
What is a Pott's spine?
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Tuberculosis of the spine, most commonly in the thoracolumbar region, with gibbus formation.
67 · Spine
What is the commonest curve pattern in idiopathic scoliosis?
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Right thoracic curve in adolescent girls; the Cobb angle measures it.
68 · Spine
What is spondylolisthesis?
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Forward slip of one vertebra over the one below, usually L5 on S1.
69 · Spine
What is the radiological feature of ankylosing spondylitis?
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Bamboo spine with sacroiliitis, in HLA-B27-positive young men.
70 · Spine
Which fracture of the C2 vertebra follows judicial hanging?
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Hangman's fracture: bilateral pars interarticularis fracture of C2.
71 · Spine
What is a Jefferson fracture?
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A burst fracture of the C1 ring from axial loading.
Memory hook: Jefferson: first ring.
72 · Metabolic bone disease
What defines osteoporosis on DEXA?
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A T-score of -2.5 or lower.
73 · Metabolic bone disease
What are the biochemical findings in osteoporosis?
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Normal calcium, phosphate and alkaline phosphatase.
Memory hook: Normal labs, weak bone.
74 · Metabolic bone disease
What is the radiological hallmark of rickets?
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Widened, cupped and frayed metaphyses with a widened growth plate.
75 · Metabolic bone disease
What is the hallmark of osteomalacia on X-ray?
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Looser's zones (pseudofractures).
76 · Metabolic bone disease
Which condition shows a raised alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and phosphate in an elderly patient with bone pain?
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Paget's disease of bone.
Memory hook: Cotton-wool skull.
77 · Metabolic bone disease
What is the classic bone finding in hyperparathyroidism?
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Subperiosteal resorption of the phalanges and a salt-and-pepper skull.
Memory hook: Brown tumours.
Common questions
How many Orthopaedics flashcards are there?
77 cards across 14 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the Orthopaedics deck?
Upper limb fractures, Fractures in children, Wrist fractures, Bone tumours, Paediatric orthopaedics, Fractures, Dislocations, Gait, Infections, Fractures and dislocations, Peripheral nerve injuries, Bone and joint infections, and more.
Is the Orthopaedics deck free?
Orthopaedics opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
43 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many Orthopaedics cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the Orthopaedics cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.