Vascular surgery: vascular malformations and tumours: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Vascular surgery: vascular malformations and tumours

Sample item

A child has a port-wine stain over the trigeminal V1 area, seizures and glaucoma. Which syndrome is this, in contrast to the limb overgrowth syndrome with port-wine stain, varicose veins and hypertrophy?

AVon Hippel-Lindau disease; the limb syndrome is Osler-Weber-RenduBKasabach-Merritt syndrome; the limb syndrome is MaffucciCSturge-Weber syndrome; the limb syndrome is Klippel-TrenaunayDKlippel-Trenaunay syndrome; the limb syndrome is Sturge-Weber

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Sturge-Weber syndrome; the limb syndrome is Klippel-Trenaunay

Sturge-Weber syndrome has a facial capillary malformation with leptomeningeal angiomatosis. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome has the triad of capillary malformation, venous varicosities and limb hypertrophy. Infantile haemangiomas, unlike malformations, proliferate then involute.

Option by option

A. Von Hippel-Lindau disease; the limb syndrome is Osler-Weber-Rendu
VHL and HHT are different conditions.
B. Kasabach-Merritt syndrome; the limb syndrome is Maffucci
Kasabach-Merritt is a consumption coagulopathy with kaposiform haemangioendothelioma.
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome; the limb syndrome is Klippel-Trenaunay (correct)
Correct. The pairings are accurate.
D. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome; the limb syndrome is Sturge-Weber
The syndromes are reversed.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is C, Sturge-Weber syndrome; the limb syndrome is Klippel-Trenaunay. Sturge-Weber syndrome has a facial capillary malformation with leptomeningeal angiomatosis.

Why is "Von Hippel-Lindau disease; the limb syndrome is Osler-Weber-Rendu" not the answer?

VHL and HHT are different conditions.

Why is "Kasabach-Merritt syndrome; the limb syndrome is Maffucci" not the answer?

Kasabach-Merritt is a consumption coagulopathy with kaposiform haemangioendothelioma.

Why is "Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome; the limb syndrome is Sturge-Weber" not the answer?

The syndromes are reversed.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular surgery: vascular malformations and tumours in General Surgery. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome has the triad of capillary malformation, venous varicosities and limb hypertrophy. Infantile haemangiomas, unlike malformations, proliferate then involute.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular surgery: vascular malformations and tumours?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.