Urology: penile carcinoma: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Urology: penile carcinoma

Sample item

An uncircumcised man with poor hygiene has a non-healing fungating lesion on the glans. Which statement is correct?

AIt is an adenocarcinomaBIt is squamous cell carcinoma associated with HPV, and inguinal nodes are the first echelonCCircumcision in adulthood is the only risk factorDIt drains first to para-aortic nodes

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. It is squamous cell carcinoma associated with HPV, and inguinal nodes are the first echelon

Penile carcinoma is a squamous cell cancer linked to phimosis, smegma, HPV 16 and 18, and absence of neonatal circumcision. Spread is to inguinal nodes first. Staging by Jackson, and treatment ranges from organ-sparing excision to partial penectomy with inguinal node assessment.

Option by option

A. It is an adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma is not typical.
B. It is squamous cell carcinoma associated with HPV, and inguinal nodes are the first echelon (correct)
Correct. SCC with inguinal drainage and HPV association.
C. Circumcision in adulthood is the only risk factor
Neonatal circumcision protects, adult circumcision does not.
D. It drains first to para-aortic nodes
Inguinal nodes come first.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, It is squamous cell carcinoma associated with HPV, and inguinal nodes are the first echelon. Penile carcinoma is a squamous cell cancer linked to phimosis, smegma, HPV 16 and 18, and absence of neonatal circumcision.

Why is "It is an adenocarcinoma" not the answer?

Adenocarcinoma is not typical.

Why is "Circumcision in adulthood is the only risk factor" not the answer?

Neonatal circumcision protects, adult circumcision does not.

Why is "It drains first to para-aortic nodes" not the answer?

Inguinal nodes come first.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Urology: penile carcinoma in General Surgery. Spread is to inguinal nodes first. Staging by Jackson, and treatment ranges from organ-sparing excision to partial penectomy with inguinal node assessment.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Urology: penile carcinoma?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.