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Anatomy · Thorax: coronary arteries
Sample itemA 62-year-old man has an acute anterior myocardial infarction. The next day ECG shows new right bundle branch block with left anterior fascicular block. Which vessel is most likely occluded, and why does it cause this conduction pattern?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Left anterior descending artery, whose septal branches supply the right bundle branch and left anterior fascicle
The left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior wall, the apex and the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum through septal perforators. These also supply the bundle of His branches, the right bundle branch and the left anterior fascicle. Proximal occlusion producing bifascicular block signals extensive septal damage and a risk of complete heart block.
Option by option
A. Posterior descending artery, which supplies the anterior two-thirds of the septum
The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the septum, not the anterior two-thirds.
B. Left circumflex artery, which supplies the anterior septum
The circumflex artery supplies the lateral and posterior left ventricle, not the anterior septum.
C. Left anterior descending artery, whose septal branches supply the right bundle branch and left anterior fascicle (correct)
Correct. Septal perforators of the left anterior descending artery supply these conduction structures.
D. Right coronary artery, whose AV nodal branch supplies the bundle branches
The right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes in most people, not the anterior bundle branches.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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