Try it
Dentistry · Tooth development and dental anatomy: Turner tooth
Sample itemAn 11-year-old has a single permanent premolar with a brown, pitted crown. History reveals a periapical abscess of the preceding primary molar at age 4. What is the best explanation?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
D. Enamel hypoplasia due to infection of the primary predecessor
A Turner tooth is localised enamel hypoplasia of a permanent tooth caused by infection or trauma to the overlying primary tooth. The affected germ lies close to the root apex of the primary tooth.
Option by option
A. Congenital syphilis
Congenital syphilis affects incisors and first molars in a pattern, with other systemic stigmata.
B. Dental fluorosis
Fluorosis affects many teeth symmetrically, not a single tooth.
C. Amelogenesis imperfecta
Amelogenesis imperfecta is generalised and hereditary.
D. Enamel hypoplasia due to infection of the primary predecessor (correct)
Correct. Infection of the primary predecessor damaged the ameloblasts of the developing premolar.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
More Dentistry questions
- Tooth development: Hertwig's root sheathDuring tooth development, which structure induces odontoblast differentiation in the roo…
- Tooth eruption: first permanent toothA 6-year-old child has a new tooth behind the last deciduous molar, with no deciduous to…
- Tooth development: neonatal lineGround sections of deciduous teeth show an accentuated incremental line in enamel and de…
- Tooth development: cell rests of MalassezEpithelial cell rests of Malassez persist in the periodontal ligament. Which cyst most o…