Reproduction: lactational amenorrhoea: practice question

A Physiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Physiology · Reproduction: lactational amenorrhoea

Sample item

A woman exclusively breastfeeding her 4-month-old infant remains amenorrhoeic and anovulatory. Which mechanism chiefly explains this lactational amenorrhoea?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Suckling suppresses pulsatile GnRH release, reducing LH pulses and follicular maturation

Suckling and the associated hyperprolactinaemia suppress hypothalamic GnRH pulse generation, so LH pulses are too infrequent to support follicular growth and ovulation. This is the physiological basis of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception when breastfeeding is exclusive. Fertility returns as suckling frequency falls.

Option by option

  • A. Oxytocin blocks oestrogen receptors in the ovary

    Oxytocin has no ovarian oestrogen-receptor blocking action.

  • B. Prolactin directly destroys the corpus luteum

    Prolactin acts by inhibiting GnRH release, not by destroying luteal tissue.

  • C. Suckling suppresses pulsatile GnRH release, reducing LH pulses and follicular maturation (correct)

    Correct. Reduced GnRH pulsatility prevents ovulation during intense suckling.

  • D. Raised FSH from the pituitary arrests follicles

    FSH is not elevated; gonadotrophin pulsatility is suppressed.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Physiology question

What is the answer to this Physiology question?

The best answer is C, Suckling suppresses pulsatile GnRH release, reducing LH pulses and follicular maturation. Suckling and the associated hyperprolactinaemia suppress hypothalamic GnRH pulse generation, so LH pulses are too infrequent to support follicular growth and ovulation.

Why is "Oxytocin blocks oestrogen receptors in the ovary" not the answer?

Oxytocin has no ovarian oestrogen-receptor blocking action.

Why is "Prolactin directly destroys the corpus luteum" not the answer?

Prolactin acts by inhibiting GnRH release, not by destroying luteal tissue.

Why is "Raised FSH from the pituitary arrests follicles" not the answer?

FSH is not elevated; gonadotrophin pulsatility is suppressed.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Reproduction: lactational amenorrhoea in Physiology. This is the physiological basis of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception when breastfeeding is exclusive. Fertility returns as suckling frequency falls.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Reproduction: lactational amenorrhoea?

For each system, sketch the key graph (pressure–volume loop, oxygen dissociation curve, nephron handling) and explain it aloud. Then use the flashcards and the other Physiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.