Contraception: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Contraception

Sample item

What is the primary mechanism of a copper intrauterine device?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction

The core Contraception principle supports Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction; it best explains the clinical feature or management priority stated in this original sample.

Option by option

  • A. Suppressing lactation

    Suppressing lactation may be considered elsewhere but is not the best response here.

  • B. Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction (correct)

    Correct. Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction directly addresses the important clue in the stem.

  • C. Inducing ovulation

    Inducing ovulation does not align with the expected contraception finding or action.

  • D. Treating endometriosis directly

    Treating endometriosis directly is not supported by the condition or priority described.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction. The core Contraception principle supports Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction; it best explains the clinical feature or management priority stated in this original sample.

Why is "Suppressing lactation" not the answer?

Suppressing lactation may be considered elsewhere but is not the best response here.

Why is "Inducing ovulation" not the answer?

Inducing ovulation does not align with the expected contraception finding or action.

Why is "Treating endometriosis directly" not the answer?

Treating endometriosis directly is not supported by the condition or priority described.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Contraception in OBG. The correct option holds because: Correct. Local spermicidal inflammatory reaction directly addresses the important clue in the stem.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Contraception?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.