Paediatric ophthalmology: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Paediatric ophthalmology

Sample item

A child has reduced best-corrected vision from abnormal early visual input despite no structural lesion sufficient to explain it; what condition is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Reduced visual development in an eye without structural explanation sufficient to account for it

Amblyopia is reduced best-corrected visual acuity caused by abnormal visual experience during development, commonly from strabismus, anisometropia, or visual-axis deprivation, and becomes harder to reverse with age.

Option by option

  • A. A lens dislocation after trauma

    Lens dislocation is a structural injury or disorder.

  • B. Reduced visual development in an eye without structural explanation sufficient to account for it (correct)

    Correct: amblyopia is developmental reduction of vision from abnormal early input.

  • C. Inflammation of the eyelid margin

    Eyelid-margin inflammation is blepharitis.

  • D. An acute rise in intraocular pressure

    Acute pressure rise describes angle-closure glaucoma.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Ophthalmology questions

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is B, Reduced visual development in an eye without structural explanation sufficient to account for it. Amblyopia is reduced best-corrected visual acuity caused by abnormal visual experience during development, commonly from strabismus, anisometropia, or visual-axis deprivation, and becomes harder to reverse with age.

Why is "A lens dislocation after trauma" not the answer?

Lens dislocation is a structural injury or disorder.

Why is "Inflammation of the eyelid margin" not the answer?

Eyelid-margin inflammation is blepharitis.

Why is "An acute rise in intraocular pressure" not the answer?

Acute pressure rise describes angle-closure glaucoma.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric ophthalmology in Ophthalmology. The correct option holds because: Correct: amblyopia is developmental reduction of vision from abnormal early input.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric ophthalmology?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.