Diabetic retinopathy: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Diabetic retinopathy

Sample item

A diabetic patient's fundus shows new vessels at the optic disc and a vitreous haemorrhage in one eye. What is the primary treatment to reduce the risk of severe visual loss?

ATight blood pressure control without ocular treatmentBFocal laser to the macula onlyCPanretinal photocoagulationDIntravitreal triamcinolone as the only therapy

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Panretinal photocoagulation

New vessels on the disc indicate proliferative diabetic retinopathy, a high-risk feature. Scatter (panretinal) laser photocoagulation ablates ischaemic retina and reduces VEGF production, causing regression of new vessels, and anti-VEGF agents may supplement it. Vitrectomy is for non-clearing haemorrhage or traction.

Option by option

A. Tight blood pressure control without ocular treatment
Systemic control is important, but ocular treatment is still required.
B. Focal laser to the macula only
Focal laser treats clinically significant macular oedema, not new vessels on the disc.
C. Panretinal photocoagulation (correct)
Correct. Panretinal laser is the standard treatment for proliferative disease.
D. Intravitreal triamcinolone as the only therapy
Triamcinolone is not the primary treatment and can raise the pressure in the eye.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is C, Panretinal photocoagulation. New vessels on the disc indicate proliferative diabetic retinopathy, a high-risk feature.

Why is "Tight blood pressure control without ocular treatment" not the answer?

Systemic control is important, but ocular treatment is still required.

Why is "Focal laser to the macula only" not the answer?

Focal laser treats clinically significant macular oedema, not new vessels on the disc.

Why is "Intravitreal triamcinolone as the only therapy" not the answer?

Triamcinolone is not the primary treatment and can raise the pressure in the eye.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Diabetic retinopathy in Ophthalmology. Scatter (panretinal) laser photocoagulation ablates ischaemic retina and reduces VEGF production, causing regression of new vessels, and anti-VEGF agents may supplement it. Vitrectomy is for non-clearing haemorrhage or traction.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Diabetic retinopathy?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.