Urology: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Urology

Sample item

A 28-year-old man has a painless hard testicular mass. Ultrasound shows a hypoechoic intratesticular lesion, and serum AFP is markedly elevated. What is the best next step?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Radical inguinal orchidectomy

A raised AFP indicates a non-seminomatous germ cell element, since pure seminoma does not produce AFP. A suspected testicular cancer is treated by high inguinal orchidectomy with high ligation of the cord, which avoids scrotal contamination and alters lymphatic spread. Tumour markers are measured before and after surgery.

Option by option

  • A. Trans-scrotal biopsy

    Trans-scrotal biopsy risks tumour seeding and changes the lymphatic drainage.

  • B. Scrotal exploration and excision

    A scrotal approach carries the same risk of altered drainage and local recurrence.

  • C. Antibiotics and review in 2 weeks

    Antibiotics are inappropriate for a painless solid intratesticular mass.

  • D. Radical inguinal orchidectomy (correct)

    Correct. High inguinal orchidectomy is the standard approach.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is D, Radical inguinal orchidectomy. A raised AFP indicates a non-seminomatous germ cell element, since pure seminoma does not produce AFP.

Why is "Trans-scrotal biopsy" not the answer?

Trans-scrotal biopsy risks tumour seeding and changes the lymphatic drainage.

Why is "Scrotal exploration and excision" not the answer?

A scrotal approach carries the same risk of altered drainage and local recurrence.

Why is "Antibiotics and review in 2 weeks" not the answer?

Antibiotics are inappropriate for a painless solid intratesticular mass.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Urology in General Surgery. A suspected testicular cancer is treated by high inguinal orchidectomy with high ligation of the cord, which avoids scrotal contamination and alters lymphatic spread. Tumour markers are measured before and after surgery.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Urology?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.