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Anatomy · Abdomen: indirect inguinal hernia
Sample itemA 4-year-old boy has an intermittent, reducible groin swelling that descends into the scrotum. At surgery the sac enters at the deep inguinal ring. What is its relation to the inferior epigastric vessels and its cause?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
A. Lateral to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis
An indirect hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring, which lies lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, and follows the spermatic cord, often because the processus vaginalis remains patent in children. A direct hernia pushes through the weak posterior wall within Hesselbach's triangle, medial to the vessels, and is usually acquired in older men.
Option by option
A. Lateral to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis (correct)
Correct. The deep ring is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and the sac is a patent processus vaginalis.
B. Lateral to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle
The deep ring is lateral, but Hesselbach's triangle is the route of a direct hernia, so the two features do not fit together.
C. Medial to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis
A patent processus vaginalis gives an indirect hernia, which lies lateral to the vessels, not medial.
D. Medial to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle
Passage medial to the vessels through Hesselbach's triangle describes a direct hernia.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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