Abdomen: indirect inguinal hernia: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Abdomen: indirect inguinal hernia

Sample item

A 4-year-old boy has an intermittent, reducible groin swelling that descends into the scrotum. At surgery the sac enters at the deep inguinal ring. What is its relation to the inferior epigastric vessels and its cause?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Lateral to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis

An indirect hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring, which lies lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, and follows the spermatic cord, often because the processus vaginalis remains patent in children. A direct hernia pushes through the weak posterior wall within Hesselbach's triangle, medial to the vessels, and is usually acquired in older men.

Option by option

  • A. Lateral to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis (correct)

    Correct. The deep ring is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and the sac is a patent processus vaginalis.

  • B. Lateral to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle

    The deep ring is lateral, but Hesselbach's triangle is the route of a direct hernia, so the two features do not fit together.

  • C. Medial to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis

    A patent processus vaginalis gives an indirect hernia, which lies lateral to the vessels, not medial.

  • D. Medial to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle

    Passage medial to the vessels through Hesselbach's triangle describes a direct hernia.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is A, Lateral to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis. An indirect hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring, which lies lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels, and follows the spermatic cord, often because the processus vaginalis remains patent in children.

Why is "Lateral to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle" not the answer?

The deep ring is lateral, but Hesselbach's triangle is the route of a direct hernia, so the two features do not fit together.

Why is "Medial to the vessels, due to a patent processus vaginalis" not the answer?

A patent processus vaginalis gives an indirect hernia, which lies lateral to the vessels, not medial.

Why is "Medial to the vessels, through Hesselbach's triangle" not the answer?

Passage medial to the vessels through Hesselbach's triangle describes a direct hernia.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Abdomen: indirect inguinal hernia in Anatomy. A direct hernia pushes through the weak posterior wall within Hesselbach's triangle, medial to the vessels, and is usually acquired in older men.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Abdomen: indirect inguinal hernia?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.