Shoulder: anterior dislocation: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Shoulder: anterior dislocation

Sample item

A 24-year-old rugby player has a first anterior dislocation of the shoulder, which is reduced. Imaging shows an impaction defect on the humeral head. Where is the Hill-Sachs lesion located?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head

In anterior dislocation the humeral head is forced against the anteroinferior glenoid rim. This produces a compression fracture on the posterolateral aspect of the head (Hill-Sachs lesion) and may tear the anteroinferior glenoid labrum (Bankart lesion). Both predispose to recurrent dislocation.

Option by option

  • A. Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head (correct)

    Correct. The posterolateral head is impacted against the glenoid rim.

  • B. Anteromedial aspect of the humeral head

    The anteromedial head is not the site of impaction in an anterior dislocation.

  • C. Inferior rim of the glenoid

    A glenoid rim injury of this type is a Bankart lesion, not a Hill-Sachs lesion.

  • D. Undersurface of the acromion

    The acromion undersurface is involved in impingement, not dislocation.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Anatomy questions

Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is A, Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head. In anterior dislocation the humeral head is forced against the anteroinferior glenoid rim.

Why is "Anteromedial aspect of the humeral head" not the answer?

The anteromedial head is not the site of impaction in an anterior dislocation.

Why is "Inferior rim of the glenoid" not the answer?

A glenoid rim injury of this type is a Bankart lesion, not a Hill-Sachs lesion.

Why is "Undersurface of the acromion" not the answer?

The acromion undersurface is involved in impingement, not dislocation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder: anterior dislocation in Anatomy. This produces a compression fracture on the posterolateral aspect of the head (Hill-Sachs lesion) and may tear the anteroinferior glenoid labrum (Bankart lesion). Both predispose to recurrent dislocation.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder: anterior dislocation?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.