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Anatomy · Wrist: scaphoid fracture
Sample itemA 22-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand and has tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox. An initial radiograph is normal, and a later one shows a waist fracture of the scaphoid. Which complication is most likely, and what is the anatomical reason?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
A. Avascular necrosis of the proximal fragment, because the blood supply enters distally and runs retrograde
The scaphoid receives most of its blood from branches of the radial artery that enter through the distal part and tubercle and run retrograde. A fracture through the waist or proximal pole can therefore deprive the proximal fragment of supply, causing delayed union, non-union and avascular necrosis. The snuffbox contains the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve branches, not the median nerve.
Option by option
A. Avascular necrosis of the proximal fragment, because the blood supply enters distally and runs retrograde (correct)
Correct. The proximal fragment is left without its retrograde blood supply.
B. Median nerve compression, because the nerve lies in the snuffbox
The median nerve lies in the carpal tunnel, not in the snuffbox.
C. Radial artery thrombosis, because the artery is fixed to the scaphoid tubercle
The radial artery crosses the snuffbox but is not usually thrombosed by a scaphoid fracture.
D. Avascular necrosis of the distal fragment, because the blood supply enters proximally
The distal fragment retains the entering vessels, so it remains viable.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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