Shoulder: recurrent dislocation lesions: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Shoulder: recurrent dislocation lesions

Sample item

A 20-year-old rugby player has had several anterior dislocations of the shoulder. An MR arthrogram shows detachment of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum. Which lesion is this, and which humeral head defect is typically associated?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Bankart lesion, with a Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral head

In an anterior dislocation the humeral head sits in front of the glenoid, tearing the anteroinferior labrum (Bankart lesion). The posterolateral head is impacted against the glenoid rim, creating a Hill-Sachs compression defect. A SLAP lesion involves the superior labrum, and reverse lesions follow posterior dislocation.

Option by option

  • A. Reverse Bankart lesion, with a trough fracture on the anteromedial humeral head

    Reverse lesions occur with posterior dislocation, which is far rarer.

  • B. SLAP lesion, with a Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral head

    A SLAP lesion involves the superior labrum from anterior to posterior, not the anteroinferior part.

  • C. Bankart lesion, with a Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral head (correct)

    Correct. Anteroinferior labral tear plus posterolateral head impaction is the classic pair.

  • D. Bankart lesion, with a trough fracture on the anteromedial humeral head

    The defect from anterior dislocation is on the posterolateral head, not the anteromedial head.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is C, Bankart lesion, with a Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral head. In an anterior dislocation the humeral head sits in front of the glenoid, tearing the anteroinferior labrum (Bankart lesion).

Why is "Reverse Bankart lesion, with a trough fracture on the anteromedial hu…" not the answer?

Reverse lesions occur with posterior dislocation, which is far rarer.

Why is "SLAP lesion, with a Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral h…" not the answer?

A SLAP lesion involves the superior labrum from anterior to posterior, not the anteroinferior part.

Why is "Bankart lesion, with a trough fracture on the anteromedial humeral he…" not the answer?

The defect from anterior dislocation is on the posterolateral head, not the anteromedial head.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder: recurrent dislocation lesions in Anatomy. The posterolateral head is impacted against the glenoid rim, creating a Hill-Sachs compression defect. A SLAP lesion involves the superior labrum, and reverse lesions follow posterior dislocation.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder: recurrent dislocation lesions?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.