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Anatomy · Orbit: superior orbital fissure syndrome
Sample itemA 40-year-old man after a midface fracture has ptosis, a fixed dilated pupil, complete ophthalmoplegia and loss of sensation over the forehead and upper eyelid. Visual acuity is normal and cheek sensation is intact. Which statement best localises the lesion?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Superior orbital fissure, since the optic nerve runs in the optic canal and the maxillary nerve in the foramen rotundum
The superior orbital fissure transmits the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerves, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve and the superior ophthalmic vein. A lesion there paralyses all eye movements and the sensation of the forehead, while vision is preserved because the optic nerve travels in the optic canal. Involvement of the optic nerve as well indicates an orbital apex syndrome.
Option by option
A. Orbital apex, since the optic nerve is spared in apex lesions
Apex lesions involve the optic nerve and would reduce visual acuity.
B. Foramen rotundum, since it transmits the oculomotor, trochlear and abducens nerves
The foramen rotundum transmits only the maxillary nerve.
C. Superior orbital fissure, since the optic nerve runs in the optic canal and the maxillary nerve in the foramen rotundum (correct)
Correct. The pattern matches the contents of the fissure, with the optic and maxillary nerves passing through other openings.
D. Inferior orbital fissure, since it transmits the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
The inferior orbital fissure transmits the infraorbital nerve and vessels, not the ophthalmic division.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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