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Biochemistry · Tumour markers: testicular germ cell tumours
Sample itemA 25-year-old man has a testicular mass. Serum AFP is 800 ng/mL and beta-hCG is mildly raised. The orchidectomy specimen is reported as classical seminoma only. How should the marker result be interpreted?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
B. The raised AFP indicates a non-seminomatous component such as yolk sac tumour, so the tumour is managed as non-seminomatous
Pure seminoma does not produce alpha-fetoprotein; raised AFP indicates yolk sac (endodermal sinus) elements, and such tumours are treated as non-seminomatous germ cell tumours regardless of histology. Seminoma may produce a mildly raised beta-hCG from syncytiotrophoblastic cells. Markers are used for diagnosis, prognosis and follow-up.
Option by option
A. Pure seminoma frequently secretes AFP, so the report is consistent
Pure seminoma does not secrete AFP, so a high value is inconsistent with the report.
B. The raised AFP indicates a non-seminomatous component such as yolk sac tumour, so the tumour is managed as non-seminomatous (correct)
Correct. AFP excludes pure seminoma and demands non-seminoma treatment.
C. The AFP indicates a benign epididymal cyst
A benign epididymal cyst does not produce AFP.
D. The AFP is from hepatocellular carcinoma metastasis
A hepatocellular source is unlikely and the AFP rise is explained by the testicular tumour.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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