Parasitology: Trichomonas vaginalis: practice question

A Microbiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Microbiology · Parasitology: Trichomonas vaginalis

Sample item

A 27-year-old woman has frothy greenish malodorous vaginal discharge, vulval itching and a strawberry-appearing cervix. Vaginal pH is 5.5, and wet mount shows motile flagellated pear-shaped organisms. What is the best management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Oral metronidazole for the patient and her sexual partner

Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoon with no cyst stage, transmitted sexually. Oral nitroimidazoles (metronidazole or tinidazole) are used because topical therapy does not reach periurethral and Skene gland reservoirs. Partners must be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection.

Option by option

  • A. Oral metronidazole for the patient and her sexual partner (correct)

    Correct. Systemic nitroimidazole for both partners clears infection and reinfection.

  • B. Oral fluconazole for the patient alone

    Fluconazole treats candidiasis, which gives curdy discharge with normal pH.

  • C. Single-dose ceftriaxone with azithromycin

    Ceftriaxone with azithromycin treats gonorrhoea and chlamydia, not a protozoon.

  • D. Topical clotrimazole pessary for the patient and partner

    Clotrimazole is an antifungal, and topical agents fail to eradicate trichomoniasis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Microbiology questions

Questions about this Microbiology question

What is the answer to this Microbiology question?

The best answer is A, Oral metronidazole for the patient and her sexual partner. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoon with no cyst stage, transmitted sexually.

Why is "Oral fluconazole for the patient alone" not the answer?

Fluconazole treats candidiasis, which gives curdy discharge with normal pH.

Why is "Single-dose ceftriaxone with azithromycin" not the answer?

Ceftriaxone with azithromycin treats gonorrhoea and chlamydia, not a protozoon.

Why is "Topical clotrimazole pessary for the patient and partner" not the answer?

Clotrimazole is an antifungal, and topical agents fail to eradicate trichomoniasis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Parasitology: Trichomonas vaginalis in Microbiology. Oral nitroimidazoles (metronidazole or tinidazole) are used because topical therapy does not reach periurethral and Skene gland reservoirs. Partners must be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Parasitology: Trichomonas vaginalis?

Make a one-line identity card for each organism: shape and stain, defining test, toxin, disease and drug. Then use the flashcards and the other Microbiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.