Try it
Microbiology · Bacteriology: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Sample itemA 19-year-old college student has a 10-day dry cough, low-grade fever and headache. The chest radiograph shows patchy infiltrates out of proportion to the clinical findings, and there was no improvement on amoxicillin. Gram stain of sputum shows no organisms. Which property explains the failure of amoxicillin?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Absence of a peptidoglycan cell wall
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the smallest free-living bacterium and lacks a cell wall, so beta-lactams that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis are ineffective and the organism does not stain on Gram stain. Macrolides, doxycycline or respiratory fluoroquinolones are active. Cold agglutinins and the Eaton agent history are associated with this atypical pneumonia.
Option by option
A. A thick mycolic acid outer layer
Mycolic acids are present in mycobacteria, not in Mycoplasma.
B. Production of beta-lactamase
Beta-lactamase destroys the drug in staphylococci and many Gram-negative bacilli; Mycoplasma has no such need because it lacks the target.
C. Absence of a peptidoglycan cell wall (correct)
Correct. With no peptidoglycan there is no target for amoxicillin.
D. Altered penicillin-binding protein 2a
PBP2a confers methicillin resistance in MRSA and is irrelevant here.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
More Microbiology questions
- BacteriologyA patient has profuse painless watery 'rice-water' stools and rapid dehydration. The cau…
- Culture mediaThayer–Martin medium is used selectively to isolate which organism?
- Immunology and serologyWhich of the following is a non-treponemal test for syphilis?
- BacteriologyAlbert's stain is used to demonstrate which of the following?