Bacteriology: brucellosis treatment: practice question

A Microbiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Microbiology · Bacteriology: brucellosis treatment

Sample item

A 35-year-old dairy farmer in Punjab has a three-week undulating fever, sweating, backache with sacroiliac tenderness and splenomegaly. Blood culture grows small Gram-negative coccobacilli that are oxidase positive and urease positive. Which treatment is appropriate?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Doxycycline with rifampicin for six weeks

Brucellosis is treated with a prolonged combination such as doxycycline plus rifampicin for six weeks, or doxycycline with streptomycin or gentamicin for the first weeks. Monotherapy and short courses lead to relapse because Brucella survives inside macrophages. Osteoarticular disease needs a longer course.

Option by option

  • A. Doxycycline with rifampicin for six weeks (correct)

    A six-week combination of doxycycline and rifampicin reaches the intracellular organisms and lowers relapse.

  • B. Ceftriaxone alone for five days

    A short course of a cephalosporin alone has poor intracellular activity and is not a recommended regimen.

  • C. Single-dose azithromycin

    A single dose does not eradicate an intracellular pathogen and would be followed by relapse.

  • D. Penicillin G for ten days

    Penicillin G has no reliable activity against Brucella and is not used.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Microbiology question

What is the answer to this Microbiology question?

The best answer is A, Doxycycline with rifampicin for six weeks. Brucellosis is treated with a prolonged combination such as doxycycline plus rifampicin for six weeks, or doxycycline with streptomycin or gentamicin for the first weeks.

Why is "Ceftriaxone alone for five days" not the answer?

A short course of a cephalosporin alone has poor intracellular activity and is not a recommended regimen.

Why is "Single-dose azithromycin" not the answer?

A single dose does not eradicate an intracellular pathogen and would be followed by relapse.

Why is "Penicillin G for ten days" not the answer?

Penicillin G has no reliable activity against Brucella and is not used.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Bacteriology: brucellosis treatment in Microbiology. Monotherapy and short courses lead to relapse because Brucella survives inside macrophages. Osteoarticular disease needs a longer course.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Bacteriology: brucellosis treatment?

Make a one-line identity card for each organism: shape and stain, defining test, toxin, disease and drug. Then use the flashcards and the other Microbiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.