Hernia: obturator hernia: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Hernia: obturator hernia

Sample item

An emaciated 82-year-old woman presents with small bowel obstruction and pain in the medial thigh that increases on extension and medial rotation of the hip. What is the likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Obturator hernia

Obturator hernia occurs through the obturator canal, mainly in thin elderly women, and often presents as intestinal obstruction. Compression of the obturator nerve causes pain along the medial thigh (Howship-Romberg sign). CT is the best investigation, and surgery is urgent.

Option by option

  • A. Obturator hernia (correct)

    Correct. The nerve is compressed in the canal, giving the Howship-Romberg sign.

  • B. Spigelian hernia

    Spigelian hernia lies in the abdominal wall lateral to the rectus.

  • C. Sciatic hernia

    Sciatic hernia passes through the greater sciatic foramen and presents with buttock swelling.

  • D. Femoral hernia

    A femoral hernia gives a lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle without nerve-type medial thigh pain.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is A, Obturator hernia. Obturator hernia occurs through the obturator canal, mainly in thin elderly women, and often presents as intestinal obstruction.

Why is "Spigelian hernia" not the answer?

Spigelian hernia lies in the abdominal wall lateral to the rectus.

Why is "Sciatic hernia" not the answer?

Sciatic hernia passes through the greater sciatic foramen and presents with buttock swelling.

Why is "Femoral hernia" not the answer?

A femoral hernia gives a lump below and lateral to the pubic tubercle without nerve-type medial thigh pain.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hernia: obturator hernia in General Surgery. Compression of the obturator nerve causes pain along the medial thigh (Howship-Romberg sign). CT is the best investigation, and surgery is urgent.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hernia: obturator hernia?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.