Breast: Mondor disease: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Breast: Mondor disease

Sample item

A 34-year-old woman notices a tender, cord-like subcutaneous induration running from the lateral breast to the upper abdomen, with a groove on raising the arm. There is no fever or mass. What is the best management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Reassurance with NSAIDs and warm compresses

Mondor disease is superficial thrombophlebitis of the thoracoepigastric vein. It is self-limiting over 2 to 8 weeks, and treatment is analgesia, anti-inflammatory drugs and warmth. Imaging is done only to exclude an underlying breast cancer, which is a rare association.

Option by option

  • A. Incision and drainage

    There is no collection, so drainage has nothing to evacuate.

  • B. Therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin

    Anticoagulation is for deep venous thrombosis, not a superficial chest wall vein.

  • C. Reassurance with NSAIDs and warm compresses (correct)

    Correct. The condition resolves spontaneously and symptomatic care is sufficient.

  • D. Excision of the affected vein

    Venous excision is unnecessary for a self-limiting superficial thrombosis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is C, Reassurance with NSAIDs and warm compresses. Mondor disease is superficial thrombophlebitis of the thoracoepigastric vein.

Why is "Incision and drainage" not the answer?

There is no collection, so drainage has nothing to evacuate.

Why is "Therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin" not the answer?

Anticoagulation is for deep venous thrombosis, not a superficial chest wall vein.

Why is "Excision of the affected vein" not the answer?

Venous excision is unnecessary for a self-limiting superficial thrombosis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Breast: Mondor disease in General Surgery. It is self-limiting over 2 to 8 weeks, and treatment is analgesia, anti-inflammatory drugs and warmth. Imaging is done only to exclude an underlying breast cancer, which is a rare association.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Breast: Mondor disease?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.