Abdomen and pelvis: laparoscopic inguinal fossae: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Abdomen and pelvis: laparoscopic inguinal fossae

Sample item

At laparoscopic hernia repair a surgeon sees a bulge between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold, which contains the inferior epigastric vessels. Which hernia is this?

ASupravesical hernia through the supravesical fossaBDirect inguinal hernia through the medial inguinal fossaCIndirect inguinal hernia through the lateral inguinal fossaDFemoral hernia through the femoral ring

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Direct inguinal hernia through the medial inguinal fossa

From the inside, the anterior abdominal wall shows five folds: the median (urachus), two medial (obliterated umbilical arteries) and two lateral (inferior epigastric vessels). The medial inguinal fossa lies between the medial and lateral folds and is the site of direct hernias through the inguinal triangle.

Option by option

A. Supravesical hernia through the supravesical fossa
The supravesical fossa lies between the median and medial umbilical folds, medial to the described site.
B. Direct inguinal hernia through the medial inguinal fossa (correct)
Correct. A bulge between the medial and lateral umbilical folds is a direct hernia.
C. Indirect inguinal hernia through the lateral inguinal fossa
An indirect hernia lies lateral to the fold containing the inferior epigastric vessels.
D. Femoral hernia through the femoral ring
A femoral hernia passes below the inguinal ligament, lateral to the lacunar ligament.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is B, Direct inguinal hernia through the medial inguinal fossa. From the inside, the anterior abdominal wall shows five folds: the median (urachus), two medial (obliterated umbilical arteries) and two lateral (inferior epigastric vessels).

Why is "Supravesical hernia through the supravesical fossa" not the answer?

The supravesical fossa lies between the median and medial umbilical folds, medial to the described site.

Why is "Indirect inguinal hernia through the lateral inguinal fossa" not the answer?

An indirect hernia lies lateral to the fold containing the inferior epigastric vessels.

Why is "Femoral hernia through the femoral ring" not the answer?

A femoral hernia passes below the inguinal ligament, lateral to the lacunar ligament.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Abdomen and pelvis: laparoscopic inguinal fossae in Anatomy. The medial inguinal fossa lies between the medial and lateral folds and is the site of direct hernias through the inguinal triangle.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Abdomen and pelvis: laparoscopic inguinal fossae?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.