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Anatomy · Abdomen and pelvis: peritoneal covering of the rectum
Sample itemA rigid sigmoidoscope biopsy 4 cm above the anal verge in a man perforates the rectal wall. The patient develops pelvic cellulitis but no peritonitis. Which anatomical fact explains this?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
B. The lower third of the rectum has no peritoneal covering
The upper third of the rectum is covered by peritoneum in front and at the sides, the middle third in front only, and the lower third has no covering, lying in the extraperitoneal pelvic tissue. A perforation of the lower rectum thus spreads into the pelvic cellular tissue rather than into the peritoneal cavity.
Option by option
A. The rectum lies entirely extraperitoneal
The upper rectum has peritoneal covering, so the whole organ is not extraperitoneal.
B. The lower third of the rectum has no peritoneal covering (correct)
Correct. The lower rectum is extraperitoneal, so leakage causes pelvic cellulitis.
C. The peritoneum covers all of the rectal circumference
The rectum is not circumferentially covered, only its upper part is partly covered.
D. The rectovesical pouch lies below the perforation
The rectovesical pouch lies above the lower rectum and does not receive spill from a perforation 4 cm from the anal verge.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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