Paediatric surgery: prune belly syndrome: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Paediatric surgery: prune belly syndrome

Sample item

A newborn boy has a wrinkled, flaccid abdominal wall, bilateral impalpable testes and dilated tortuous ureters on ultrasound. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Prune belly (Eagle-Barrett) syndrome

Prune belly syndrome is defined by deficient abdominal wall musculature, bilateral cryptorchidism and a dilated urinary tract. Management addresses renal function and urinary drainage, and orchidopexy and abdominal wall reconstruction are later steps.

Option by option

  • A. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

    Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome has macroglossia, omphalocele and hypoglycaemia.

  • B. Posterior urethral valves

    Posterior urethral valves cause obstructive uropathy but not a deficient abdominal wall musculature.

  • C. Prune belly (Eagle-Barrett) syndrome (correct)

    Correct. Absent abdominal musculature, cryptorchidism and urinary tract dilatation define the triad.

  • D. VACTERL association

    VACTERL is a group of vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheo-oesophageal, renal and limb defects, not this triad.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is C, Prune belly (Eagle-Barrett) syndrome. Prune belly syndrome is defined by deficient abdominal wall musculature, bilateral cryptorchidism and a dilated urinary tract.

Why is "Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome" not the answer?

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome has macroglossia, omphalocele and hypoglycaemia.

Why is "Posterior urethral valves" not the answer?

Posterior urethral valves cause obstructive uropathy but not a deficient abdominal wall musculature.

Why is "VACTERL association" not the answer?

VACTERL is a group of vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheo-oesophageal, renal and limb defects, not this triad.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric surgery: prune belly syndrome in General Surgery. Management addresses renal function and urinary drainage, and orchidopexy and abdominal wall reconstruction are later steps.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric surgery: prune belly syndrome?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.