Neurophysiology and special senses: receptive aphasia: practice question

A Physiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Physiology · Neurophysiology and special senses: receptive aphasia

Sample item

After a left temporal stroke, a 66-year-old man speaks fluently, but his sentences contain made-up words and make little sense. He cannot follow simple commands and seems unaware of his errors. Which area is most likely damaged?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere

Fluent but meaningless speech with poor comprehension and poor insight is receptive aphasia, caused by damage to the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere. Expression is preserved because the frontal area is intact.

Option by option

  • A. Posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (correct)

    Correct. Damage here gives fluent, empty speech with impaired comprehension.

  • B. Arcuate fasciculus connecting the language areas

    Arcuate fasciculus damage mainly impairs repetition, with comprehension relatively preserved.

  • C. Posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere

    Posterior inferior frontal damage gives non-fluent speech with preserved comprehension.

  • D. Heschl gyrus of both hemispheres

    Bilateral primary auditory cortex damage causes cortical deafness, not fluent paraphasic speech.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Physiology question

What is the answer to this Physiology question?

The best answer is A, Posterior superior temporal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere. Fluent but meaningless speech with poor comprehension and poor insight is receptive aphasia, caused by damage to the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere.

Why is "Arcuate fasciculus connecting the language areas" not the answer?

Arcuate fasciculus damage mainly impairs repetition, with comprehension relatively preserved.

Why is "Posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere" not the answer?

Posterior inferior frontal damage gives non-fluent speech with preserved comprehension.

Why is "Heschl gyrus of both hemispheres" not the answer?

Bilateral primary auditory cortex damage causes cortical deafness, not fluent paraphasic speech.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neurophysiology and special senses: receptive aphasia in Physiology. Expression is preserved because the frontal area is intact.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neurophysiology and special senses: receptive aphasia?

For each system, sketch the key graph (pressure–volume loop, oxygen dissociation curve, nephron handling) and explain it aloud. Then use the flashcards and the other Physiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.