Neuroanatomy: choroid plexus papilloma: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Anatomy · Neuroanatomy: choroid plexus papilloma

Sample item

An infant has an enlarging head and communicating hydrocephalus. MRI shows a lobulated intraventricular mass in the atrium of the lateral ventricle with no obstruction of CSF pathways. How does the tumour cause hydrocephalus?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Overproduction of CSF by the tumour

A choroid plexus papilloma secretes CSF, and the volume produced exceeds the absorptive capacity of the arachnoid granulations. It is the classic tumour causing hydrocephalus through overproduction, and removal can cure the hydrocephalus.

Option by option

  • A. Overproduction of CSF by the tumour (correct)

    Correct. The tumour tissue itself secretes excess CSF, overwhelming absorption.

  • B. Blockade of the fourth ventricular outlets

    Fourth ventricular outlet blockade gives a Dandy-Walker pattern, not an atrial mass.

  • C. Obstruction of the interventricular foramen

    Obstruction of the interventricular foramen would dilate one lateral ventricle, which does not fit an atrial mass in communicating hydrocephalus.

  • D. Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus

    Venous sinus thrombosis raises venous pressure but is not the mechanism of this tumour.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Anatomy questions

Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is A, Overproduction of CSF by the tumour. A choroid plexus papilloma secretes CSF, and the volume produced exceeds the absorptive capacity of the arachnoid granulations.

Why is "Blockade of the fourth ventricular outlets" not the answer?

Fourth ventricular outlet blockade gives a Dandy-Walker pattern, not an atrial mass.

Why is "Obstruction of the interventricular foramen" not the answer?

Obstruction of the interventricular foramen would dilate one lateral ventricle, which does not fit an atrial mass in communicating hydrocephalus.

Why is "Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus" not the answer?

Venous sinus thrombosis raises venous pressure but is not the mechanism of this tumour.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuroanatomy: choroid plexus papilloma in Anatomy. It is the classic tumour causing hydrocephalus through overproduction, and removal can cure the hydrocephalus.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuroanatomy: choroid plexus papilloma?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.