Hernia: laparoscopic repair: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

General Surgery · Hernia: laparoscopic repair

Sample item

In which patient is a laparoscopic totally extraperitoneal (TEP) repair particularly advantageous?

AA patient with a large irreducible scrotal hernia and prior pelvic surgeryBBilateral or recurrent inguinal hernia after open repairCA child with an indirect herniaDA patient unfit for general anaesthesia

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Bilateral or recurrent inguinal hernia after open repair

Laparoscopic repair allows both groins to be repaired through the same ports and avoids scarred planes in recurrent hernias after anterior repair. It needs general anaesthesia, so it is unsuitable for those unfit. Prior pelvic surgery and large scrotal hernias are relative difficulties.

Option by option

A. A patient with a large irreducible scrotal hernia and prior pelvic surgery
Prior pelvic surgery makes the preperitoneal plane hostile.
B. Bilateral or recurrent inguinal hernia after open repair (correct)
Correct. Bilateral and recurrent hernias are classic indications.
C. A child with an indirect hernia
Children have high ligation of the sac without mesh.
D. A patient unfit for general anaesthesia
Laparoscopy needs general anaesthesia.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, Bilateral or recurrent inguinal hernia after open repair. Laparoscopic repair allows both groins to be repaired through the same ports and avoids scarred planes in recurrent hernias after anterior repair.

Why is "A patient with a large irreducible scrotal hernia and prior pelvic su…" not the answer?

Prior pelvic surgery makes the preperitoneal plane hostile.

Why is "A child with an indirect hernia" not the answer?

Children have high ligation of the sac without mesh.

Why is "A patient unfit for general anaesthesia" not the answer?

Laparoscopy needs general anaesthesia.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hernia: laparoscopic repair in General Surgery. It needs general anaesthesia, so it is unsuitable for those unfit. Prior pelvic surgery and large scrotal hernias are relative difficulties.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hernia: laparoscopic repair?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.