Colorectal: adjuvant chemotherapy: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Colorectal: adjuvant chemotherapy

Sample item

A patient has a resected sigmoid carcinoma with metastasis in 3 of 14 regional lymph nodes and no distant disease. Which statement is correct?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. This is stage III disease and adjuvant chemotherapy is indicated

Lymph node involvement without distant metastases is stage III (Dukes C), and adjuvant fluoropyrimidine-based chemotherapy, often with oxaliplatin, improves survival. At least 12 nodes should be examined for adequate staging. Metastatic disease would be stage IV.

Option by option

  • A. Radiotherapy alone is standard

    Radiotherapy is used in rectal cancer, not as sole adjuvant for colon cancer.

  • B. This is stage III disease and adjuvant chemotherapy is indicated (correct)

    Correct. Node-positive disease is stage III and benefits from adjuvant chemotherapy.

  • C. This is stage IV disease

    Stage IV requires distant metastases.

  • D. This is stage I and needs no treatment

    Stage I involves invasion into muscularis propria with negative nodes.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, This is stage III disease and adjuvant chemotherapy is indicated. Lymph node involvement without distant metastases is stage III (Dukes C), and adjuvant fluoropyrimidine-based chemotherapy, often with oxaliplatin, improves survival.

Why is "Radiotherapy alone is standard" not the answer?

Radiotherapy is used in rectal cancer, not as sole adjuvant for colon cancer.

Why is "This is stage IV disease" not the answer?

Stage IV requires distant metastases.

Why is "This is stage I and needs no treatment" not the answer?

Stage I involves invasion into muscularis propria with negative nodes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Colorectal: adjuvant chemotherapy in General Surgery. At least 12 nodes should be examined for adequate staging. Metastatic disease would be stage IV.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Colorectal: adjuvant chemotherapy?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.