Perioperative: venous thromboembolism prophylaxis: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Perioperative: venous thromboembolism prophylaxis

Sample item

A 65-year-old undergoes major abdominal surgery for colon cancer. What is the best thromboprophylaxis strategy?

AAspirin aloneBLow molecular weight heparin plus mechanical methods such as compression devicesCWarfarin started on the day of surgery as the only agentDNo prophylaxis because she will mobilise soon

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Low molecular weight heparin plus mechanical methods such as compression devices

Patients undergoing major abdominal or pelvic surgery for cancer are at high risk of venous thromboembolism, so pharmacological prophylaxis with LMWH combined with mechanical methods is advised, with extended prophylaxis for up to four weeks after cancer surgery. Early mobilisation and hydration help. Aspirin alone is insufficient.

Option by option

A. Aspirin alone
Aspirin is not adequate.
B. Low molecular weight heparin plus mechanical methods such as compression devices (correct)
Correct. High-risk patients need combined prophylaxis.
C. Warfarin started on the day of surgery as the only agent
Warfarin alone has a delayed onset and is not suitable as sole prophylaxis.
D. No prophylaxis because she will mobilise soon
Omitting prophylaxis exposes the patient to avoidable risk.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, Low molecular weight heparin plus mechanical methods such as compression devices. Patients undergoing major abdominal or pelvic surgery for cancer are at high risk of venous thromboembolism, so pharmacological prophylaxis with LMWH combined with mechanical methods is advised, with extended prophylaxis for up to four weeks after cancer surgery.

Why is "Aspirin alone" not the answer?

Aspirin is not adequate.

Why is "Warfarin started on the day of surgery as the only agent" not the answer?

Warfarin alone has a delayed onset and is not suitable as sole prophylaxis.

Why is "No prophylaxis because she will mobilise soon" not the answer?

Omitting prophylaxis exposes the patient to avoidable risk.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Perioperative: venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in General Surgery. Early mobilisation and hydration help. Aspirin alone is insufficient.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Perioperative: venous thromboembolism prophylaxis?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.