Vascular surgery: iliofemoral venous thrombosis: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Vascular surgery: iliofemoral venous thrombosis

Sample item

A 28-year-old woman has sudden swelling of the left leg only. Duplex shows thrombosis from the common iliac to the femoral vein, and CT venography shows compression of the left common iliac vein between the right common iliac artery and the lumbar spine. What is the syndrome?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. May-Thurner syndrome

Compression of the left common iliac vein by the overlying right common iliac artery predisposes young women to left iliofemoral DVT, called May-Thurner syndrome. Treatment is thrombolysis or thrombectomy followed by stenting of the vein.

Option by option

  • A. May-Thurner syndrome (correct)

    Correct. The left iliac vein is compressed by the right iliac artery.

  • B. Budd-Chiari syndrome

    Budd-Chiari is hepatic venous outflow obstruction.

  • C. Paget-Schroetter syndrome

    Paget-Schroetter is effort thrombosis of the axillary-subclavian vein.

  • D. Nutcracker syndrome

    Nutcracker syndrome compresses the left renal vein between aorta and SMA.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is A, May-Thurner syndrome. Compression of the left common iliac vein by the overlying right common iliac artery predisposes young women to left iliofemoral DVT, called May-Thurner syndrome.

Why is "Budd-Chiari syndrome" not the answer?

Budd-Chiari is hepatic venous outflow obstruction.

Why is "Paget-Schroetter syndrome" not the answer?

Paget-Schroetter is effort thrombosis of the axillary-subclavian vein.

Why is "Nutcracker syndrome" not the answer?

Nutcracker syndrome compresses the left renal vein between aorta and SMA.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular surgery: iliofemoral venous thrombosis in General Surgery. Treatment is thrombolysis or thrombectomy followed by stenting of the vein.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular surgery: iliofemoral venous thrombosis?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.