Infertility: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Infertility

Sample item

A 29-year-old woman develops secondary amenorrhoea after vigorous curettage for retained products. She has normal FSH and no withdrawal bleed after oestrogen followed by progestogen. Which investigation is both diagnostic and potentially therapeutic?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Hysteroscopy

Amenorrhoea after uterine instrumentation with normal ovarian hormones and failed withdrawal bleeding indicates intrauterine adhesions (Asherman syndrome), meaning the outflow tract is the problem. Hysteroscopy shows the adhesions and allows adhesiolysis at the same sitting.

Option by option

  • A. Karyotyping

    Karyotyping is for suspected chromosomal ovarian failure, which would show high FSH.

  • B. Pelvic ultrasound only

    Ultrasound alone cannot reliably show thin adhesions and offers no treatment.

  • C. Hysteroscopy (correct)

    Correct. Direct visualisation confirms adhesions and permits their division.

  • D. Serum prolactin

    Prolactin assesses a hormonal cause, which does not fit the normal FSH and history.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Hysteroscopy. Amenorrhoea after uterine instrumentation with normal ovarian hormones and failed withdrawal bleeding indicates intrauterine adhesions (Asherman syndrome), meaning the outflow tract is the problem.

Why is "Karyotyping" not the answer?

Karyotyping is for suspected chromosomal ovarian failure, which would show high FSH.

Why is "Pelvic ultrasound only" not the answer?

Ultrasound alone cannot reliably show thin adhesions and offers no treatment.

Why is "Serum prolactin" not the answer?

Prolactin assesses a hormonal cause, which does not fit the normal FSH and history.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infertility in OBG. Hysteroscopy shows the adhesions and allows adhesiolysis at the same sitting.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infertility?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.