Vascular surgery: recognition: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Vascular surgery: recognition

Sample item

A man with Marfan syndrome has chest pain, hoarseness, dysphagia, a widened mediastinum on X-ray and an ascending aorta of 5.8 cm on CT, with no tearing pain or intimal flap. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

A dilated aorta compresses neighbouring structures such as the recurrent laryngeal nerve and oesophagus. Marfan syndrome is a recognised cause. Absent flap and tearing pain argue against dissection.

Option by option

  • A. Mediastinal lymphoma

    Lymphoma gives nodal masses, not a dilated aorta.

  • B. Acute aortic dissection

    Dissection has sudden tearing pain and an intimal flap.

  • C. Thoracic aortic aneurysm (correct)

    Correct. A stable dilated aorta with compression symptoms is an aneurysm.

  • D. Oesophageal carcinoma

    Oesophageal carcinoma would show a mural mass and not aortic dilatation.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is C, Thoracic aortic aneurysm. A dilated aorta compresses neighbouring structures such as the recurrent laryngeal nerve and oesophagus.

Why is "Mediastinal lymphoma" not the answer?

Lymphoma gives nodal masses, not a dilated aorta.

Why is "Acute aortic dissection" not the answer?

Dissection has sudden tearing pain and an intimal flap.

Why is "Oesophageal carcinoma" not the answer?

Oesophageal carcinoma would show a mural mass and not aortic dilatation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular surgery: recognition in General Surgery. Marfan syndrome is a recognised cause. Absent flap and tearing pain argue against dissection.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular surgery: recognition?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.