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Anaesthesia · Cardiovascular physiology, fluids, and blood management: curriculum recognition
Sample itemA 58-year-old man on amlodipine arrives for elective inguinal hernia repair. His blood pressure is 154/96 mmHg and he has no symptoms or end-organ damage. What is the best plan?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
B. Proceed and continue the antihypertensive
Mild to moderate hypertension without end-organ damage does not increase perioperative risk enough to postpone surgery. Treatment is normally continued up to the morning of surgery, and surgery is deferred only for severe hypertension, around 180/110 or more. Abrupt lowering is itself harmful.
Option by option
A. Give intravenous labetalol until the pressure is below 120/80
Aggressive acute lowering risks hypotension and organ hypoperfusion.
B. Proceed and continue the antihypertensive (correct)
Correct. Surgery proceeds and antihypertensive drugs are continued.
C. Omit amlodipine on the morning of surgery
Stopping the drug risks rebound hypertension on the day of surgery.
D. Postpone surgery for six weeks of blood pressure control
Postponement is reserved for severe or symptomatic hypertension.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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