Normal pregnancy: pregnancy luteoma: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Normal pregnancy: pregnancy luteoma

Sample item

A woman at 30 weeks develops hirsutism and clitoromegaly, and ultrasound shows bilateral solid ovarian masses. Her testosterone is high. The female newborn is mildly virilised. Which is the likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Pregnancy luteoma

Pregnancy luteoma is a hyperplastic non-neoplastic response of ovarian theca-lutein cells to hCG, often bilateral, and it may cause maternal and female fetal virilisation. It regresses spontaneously after delivery, so conservative management is appropriate. Tumours such as Sertoli-Leydig are usually unilateral and persist.

Option by option

  • A. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour

    Sertoli-Leydig tumours are neoplastic, usually unilateral and do not regress.

  • B. Granulosa cell tumour

    Granulosa tumours cause oestrogenic effects, not virilisation.

  • C. Pregnancy luteoma (correct)

    Correct. A bilateral hormonally active mass in pregnancy that regresses postpartum is luteoma.

  • D. Krukenberg tumour

    Krukenberg tumours are metastatic and not hormonally driven in this way.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Pregnancy luteoma. Pregnancy luteoma is a hyperplastic non-neoplastic response of ovarian theca-lutein cells to hCG, often bilateral, and it may cause maternal and female fetal virilisation.

Why is "Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour" not the answer?

Sertoli-Leydig tumours are neoplastic, usually unilateral and do not regress.

Why is "Granulosa cell tumour" not the answer?

Granulosa tumours cause oestrogenic effects, not virilisation.

Why is "Krukenberg tumour" not the answer?

Krukenberg tumours are metastatic and not hormonally driven in this way.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Normal pregnancy: pregnancy luteoma in OBG. It regresses spontaneously after delivery, so conservative management is appropriate. Tumours such as Sertoli-Leydig are usually unilateral and persist.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Normal pregnancy: pregnancy luteoma?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.