Infertility: poor ovarian response: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Infertility: poor ovarian response

Sample item

Which patient meets the Bologna criteria for poor ovarian responders?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. A 41-year-old with an antral follicle count of 4 and AMH of 0.4 ng/mL

The Bologna criteria require at least two of three features: advanced maternal age (40 years or more) or another risk factor, a previous poor response (three or fewer oocytes with conventional stimulation), and an abnormal ovarian reserve test such as antral follicle count under 5 to 7 or AMH under 0.5 to 1.1 ng/mL. A 41-year-old with low reserve markers satisfies age and reserve criteria. Higher gonadotropin doses often do not improve outcomes.

Option by option

  • A. A 32-year-old with 12 oocytes in her last cycle

    Twelve oocytes is a good response.

  • B. A 41-year-old with an antral follicle count of 4 and AMH of 0.4 ng/mL (correct)

    Correct. Advanced age with low antral follicle count and AMH meets the criteria.

  • C. A 28-year-old with antral follicle count of 18 and normal AMH

    Normal reserve markers in a young woman do not qualify.

  • D. A 30-year-old with PCOS and 25 follicles

    PCOS with many follicles is a hyper-responder risk, not a poor responder.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, A 41-year-old with an antral follicle count of 4 and AMH of 0.4 ng/mL. The Bologna criteria require at least two of three features: advanced maternal age (40 years or more) or another risk factor, a previous poor response (three or fewer oocytes with conventional stimulation), and an abnormal ovarian reserve test such as antral follicle count under 5 to 7 or AMH under 0.

Why is "A 32-year-old with 12 oocytes in her last cycle" not the answer?

Twelve oocytes is a good response.

Why is "A 28-year-old with antral follicle count of 18 and normal AMH" not the answer?

Normal reserve markers in a young woman do not qualify.

Why is "A 30-year-old with PCOS and 25 follicles" not the answer?

PCOS with many follicles is a hyper-responder risk, not a poor responder.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infertility: poor ovarian response in OBG. 5 to 1.1 ng/mL. A 41-year-old with low reserve markers satisfies age and reserve criteria. Higher gonadotropin doses often do not improve outcomes.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infertility: poor ovarian response?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.