Gynaecological oncology: atypical glandular cells: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: atypical glandular cells

Sample item

A 41-year-old woman has a cervical cytology report of atypical glandular cells. What is the appropriate evaluation?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling and endometrial sampling

Atypical glandular cells may come from the endocervix, endometrium or ovary, and have a significant chance of significant pathology including adenocarcinoma in situ and endometrial cancer. Evaluation includes colposcopy with endocervical curettage, and endometrial sampling in women aged 35 or older or with abnormal bleeding. Adenocarcinoma in situ is treated by cone excision and later hysterectomy if childbearing is complete.

Option by option

  • A. No action

    Ignoring the result risks missing glandular neoplasia.

  • B. Repeat cytology in 12 months

    Repeat cytology alone is inadequate.

  • C. Immediate hysterectomy

    Hysterectomy without a diagnosis is not appropriate.

  • D. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling and endometrial sampling (correct)

    Correct. Both the cervix and endometrium need sampling at this age.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is D, Colposcopy with endocervical sampling and endometrial sampling. Atypical glandular cells may come from the endocervix, endometrium or ovary, and have a significant chance of significant pathology including adenocarcinoma in situ and endometrial cancer.

Why is "No action" not the answer?

Ignoring the result risks missing glandular neoplasia.

Why is "Repeat cytology in 12 months" not the answer?

Repeat cytology alone is inadequate.

Why is "Immediate hysterectomy" not the answer?

Hysterectomy without a diagnosis is not appropriate.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: atypical glandular cells in OBG. Evaluation includes colposcopy with endocervical curettage, and endometrial sampling in women aged 35 or older or with abnormal bleeding. Adenocarcinoma in situ is treated by cone excision and later hysterectomy if childbearing is complete.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: atypical glandular cells?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.