Gynaecological oncology: vaginal cancer: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: vaginal cancer

Sample item

Which statement about carcinoma of the vagina is correct?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Most vaginal tumours are metastatic or secondary, and primary tumours are usually squamous, treated mainly with radiotherapy

Primary vaginal cancer is rare, accounting for 1 to 2 percent of gynaecological cancers, and most vaginal malignancies are secondary from the cervix, endometrium or vulva. Primary tumours are mostly squamous and HPV-related, with the upper third the commonest site, and treatment is mainly radiotherapy with brachytherapy. Pre-invasive disease is called vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia.

Option by option

  • A. It is treated by hysterectomy alone

    Hysterectomy does not treat a vaginal tumour.

  • B. Most vaginal tumours are metastatic or secondary, and primary tumours are usually squamous, treated mainly with radiotherapy (correct)

    Correct. Primary vaginal cancer is rare, usually squamous, and managed with radiotherapy.

  • C. It is the commonest gynaecological cancer

    It is among the rarest gynaecological cancers.

  • D. It is usually adenocarcinoma in elderly women

    Adenocarcinoma is uncommon and linked to diethylstilbestrol exposure in the young.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Most vaginal tumours are metastatic or secondary, and primary tumours are usually squamous, treated mainly with radiotherapy. Primary vaginal cancer is rare, accounting for 1 to 2 percent of gynaecological cancers, and most vaginal malignancies are secondary from the cervix, endometrium or vulva.

Why is "It is treated by hysterectomy alone" not the answer?

Hysterectomy does not treat a vaginal tumour.

Why is "It is the commonest gynaecological cancer" not the answer?

It is among the rarest gynaecological cancers.

Why is "It is usually adenocarcinoma in elderly women" not the answer?

Adenocarcinoma is uncommon and linked to diethylstilbestrol exposure in the young.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: vaginal cancer in OBG. Primary tumours are mostly squamous and HPV-related, with the upper third the commonest site, and treatment is mainly radiotherapy with brachytherapy. Pre-invasive disease is called vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: vaginal cancer?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.