Gynaecological oncology: HIV and cervical disease: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: HIV and cervical disease

Sample item

Why are women living with HIV advised more frequent cervical screening?

AHPV infection never clears in the general populationBHigher rates of persistent HPV infection and rapid progression of CIN to invasive cancerCHIV directly infects cervical cellsDThey have lower rates of cervical cancer

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Higher rates of persistent HPV infection and rapid progression of CIN to invasive cancer

Immunosuppression leads to persistent high-risk HPV infection, multifocal and recurrent lesions, and faster progression to cancer, and cervical cancer is an AIDS-defining illness in some classifications. Screening begins at diagnosis and is repeated at shorter intervals. Antiretroviral therapy reduces but does not remove the risk.

Option by option

A. HPV infection never clears in the general population
HPV clears in most immunocompetent women.
B. Higher rates of persistent HPV infection and rapid progression of CIN to invasive cancer (correct)
Correct. Persistent HPV and faster progression justify closer screening.
C. HIV directly infects cervical cells
HIV does not directly transform cervical cells.
D. They have lower rates of cervical cancer
Cervical cancer rates are higher, not lower.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Higher rates of persistent HPV infection and rapid progression of CIN to invasive cancer. Immunosuppression leads to persistent high-risk HPV infection, multifocal and recurrent lesions, and faster progression to cancer, and cervical cancer is an AIDS-defining illness in some classifications.

Why is "HPV infection never clears in the general population" not the answer?

HPV clears in most immunocompetent women.

Why is "HIV directly infects cervical cells" not the answer?

HIV does not directly transform cervical cells.

Why is "They have lower rates of cervical cancer" not the answer?

Cervical cancer rates are higher, not lower.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: HIV and cervical disease in OBG. Screening begins at diagnosis and is repeated at shorter intervals. Antiretroviral therapy reduces but does not remove the risk.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: HIV and cervical disease?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.