Gynaecological oncology: clear cell ovarian carcinoma: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

OBG · Gynaecological oncology: clear cell ovarian carcinoma

Sample item

A 48-year-old woman with a long history of endometriosis has a 10 cm unilocular ovarian cyst with a solid mural nodule, and histology shows clear cell carcinoma. Which statement about this tumour is correct?

AIt arises from sex cord cellsBIt is associated with endometriosis and tends to be relatively resistant to platinum chemotherapyCIt is always benignDIt is a germ cell tumour sensitive to BEP

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. It is associated with endometriosis and tends to be relatively resistant to platinum chemotherapy

Clear cell carcinoma is an epithelial ovarian cancer arising from endometriosis, often presenting at an early stage as a large unilocular mass with a mural nodule. It is less responsive to platinum-based chemotherapy than serous carcinoma, so complete surgical staging is important. It is also associated with venous thromboembolism.

Option by option

A. It arises from sex cord cells
Sex cord tumours are a different category, such as granulosa cell tumours.
B. It is associated with endometriosis and tends to be relatively resistant to platinum chemotherapy (correct)
Correct. It arises in endometriosis and is relatively platinum resistant.
C. It is always benign
It is malignant.
D. It is a germ cell tumour sensitive to BEP
It is an epithelial, not germ cell, tumour.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, It is associated with endometriosis and tends to be relatively resistant to platinum chemotherapy. Clear cell carcinoma is an epithelial ovarian cancer arising from endometriosis, often presenting at an early stage as a large unilocular mass with a mural nodule.

Why is "It arises from sex cord cells" not the answer?

Sex cord tumours are a different category, such as granulosa cell tumours.

Why is "It is always benign" not the answer?

It is malignant.

Why is "It is a germ cell tumour sensitive to BEP" not the answer?

It is an epithelial, not germ cell, tumour.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: clear cell ovarian carcinoma in OBG. It is less responsive to platinum-based chemotherapy than serous carcinoma, so complete surgical staging is important. It is also associated with venous thromboembolism.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: clear cell ovarian carcinoma?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.