Gynaecological oncology: Latzko triad: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology: Latzko triad

Sample item

A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has intermittent profuse watery vaginal discharge, colicky lower abdominal pain relieved after the discharge, and a palpable adnexal mass that shrinks afterwards. What is the likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Carcinoma of the fallopian tube (hydrops tubae profluens)

Latzko's triad of profuse watery discharge, colicky pain and an adnexal mass that decreases after discharge describes fallopian tube carcinoma, in which the tube intermittently drains accumulated fluid. It is uncommon and often diagnosed at surgery. Treatment is staging surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy as for ovarian cancer.

Option by option

  • A. Endometrial polyp

    A polyp does not cause an adnexal mass.

  • B. Tubo-ovarian abscess

    A tubo-ovarian abscess presents with fever and acute tenderness.

  • C. Cervical carcinoma

    Cervical carcinoma presents with contact bleeding and an abnormal cervix.

  • D. Carcinoma of the fallopian tube (hydrops tubae profluens) (correct)

    Correct. This triad is characteristic of tubal carcinoma.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is D, Carcinoma of the fallopian tube (hydrops tubae profluens). Latzko's triad of profuse watery discharge, colicky pain and an adnexal mass that decreases after discharge describes fallopian tube carcinoma, in which the tube intermittently drains accumulated fluid.

Why is "Endometrial polyp" not the answer?

A polyp does not cause an adnexal mass.

Why is "Tubo-ovarian abscess" not the answer?

A tubo-ovarian abscess presents with fever and acute tenderness.

Why is "Cervical carcinoma" not the answer?

Cervical carcinoma presents with contact bleeding and an abnormal cervix.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology: Latzko triad in OBG. It is uncommon and often diagnosed at surgery. Treatment is staging surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy as for ovarian cancer.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology: Latzko triad?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.