Pelvis: Young-Burgess APC III: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Pelvis: Young-Burgess APC III

Sample item

A driver crushed in a head-on collision has symphysis diastasis and the posterior sacroiliac ligaments are completely disrupted. He is hypotensive. Which pattern is this, and what is its main danger?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Anteroposterior compression III; severe haemorrhage with rotational and vertical instability

In APC type III both the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments are completely torn, leaving the hemipelvis unstable. The pelvic volume expands and the posterior venous plexus bleeds, so these patients often need massive transfusion. A binder, packing or external fixation are used for control.

Option by option

  • A. Vertical shear; isolated bladder rupture

    Vertical shear follows a fall from height and is not described by symphysis diastasis from frontal impact.

  • B. Lateral compression I; stable and low risk

    Lateral compression I is a stable impaction injury and does not cause this picture.

  • C. Anteroposterior compression III; severe haemorrhage with rotational and vertical instability (correct)

    Correct. A complete posterior ligament disruption with symphysis diastasis is APC III and bleeds heavily.

  • D. Anteroposterior compression I; minimal bleeding

    APC I is a minor widening with intact posterior ligaments and little bleeding.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Anteroposterior compression III; severe haemorrhage with rotational and vertical instability. In APC type III both the anterior and posterior sacroiliac ligaments are completely torn, leaving the hemipelvis unstable.

Why is "Vertical shear; isolated bladder rupture" not the answer?

Vertical shear follows a fall from height and is not described by symphysis diastasis from frontal impact.

Why is "Lateral compression I; stable and low risk" not the answer?

Lateral compression I is a stable impaction injury and does not cause this picture.

Why is "Anteroposterior compression I; minimal bleeding" not the answer?

APC I is a minor widening with intact posterior ligaments and little bleeding.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Pelvis: Young-Burgess APC III in Orthopaedics. The pelvic volume expands and the posterior venous plexus bleeds, so these patients often need massive transfusion. A binder, packing or external fixation are used for control.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Pelvis: Young-Burgess APC III?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.