Hip: femoroacetabular impingement: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Hip: femoroacetabular impingement

Sample item

A 26-year-old athlete has groin pain on deep hip flexion with internal rotation, and a positive impingement test. Radiographs show loss of the normal femoral head-neck offset. Which type of impingement is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Cam impingement

Cam impingement is due to an aspherical femoral head with reduced head-neck offset, which jams into the acetabulum on flexion. Pincer impingement is caused by an over-covering acetabulum. Both damage the labrum and cartilage and can lead to early osteoarthritis.

Option by option

  • A. Ischiofemoral impingement of the knee

    Ischiofemoral impingement involves the hip and does not involve the knee.

  • B. Cam impingement (correct)

    Correct. A loss of head-neck offset on the femoral side is cam impingement.

  • C. Pincer impingement

    Pincer impingement arises from acetabular over-coverage, not femoral head-neck shape.

  • D. Subacromial impingement

    Subacromial impingement is a shoulder condition.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Cam impingement. Cam impingement is due to an aspherical femoral head with reduced head-neck offset, which jams into the acetabulum on flexion.

Why is "Ischiofemoral impingement of the knee" not the answer?

Ischiofemoral impingement involves the hip and does not involve the knee.

Why is "Pincer impingement" not the answer?

Pincer impingement arises from acetabular over-coverage, not femoral head-neck shape.

Why is "Subacromial impingement" not the answer?

Subacromial impingement is a shoulder condition.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hip: femoroacetabular impingement in Orthopaedics. Pincer impingement is caused by an over-covering acetabulum. Both damage the labrum and cartilage and can lead to early osteoarthritis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hip: femoroacetabular impingement?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.