Paediatric orthopaedics: arthrogryposis multiplex congenita: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Paediatric orthopaedics: arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Sample item

A newborn has rigid, extended knees, internally rotated shoulders, clubbed feet and wrist flexion contractures, with thin muscles and normal intelligence. The deformities are non-progressive. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita is the presence of multiple non-progressive joint contractures at birth, caused by reduced fetal movement. In amyoplasia the limbs are symmetrically affected and intelligence is normal. Early stretching, splinting and corrective surgery improve function.

Option by option

  • A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

    Duchenne dystrophy presents later with progressive weakness and calf pseudohypertrophy.

  • B. Spinal muscular atrophy type 3

    Spinal muscular atrophy type 3 presents in later childhood with proximal weakness.

  • C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

    Osteogenesis imperfecta causes fractures and blue sclerae, not multiple fixed contractures.

  • D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita (correct)

    Correct. Multiple fixed congenital contractures with normal intelligence suggest arthrogryposis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita is the presence of multiple non-progressive joint contractures at birth, caused by reduced fetal movement.

Why is "Duchenne muscular dystrophy" not the answer?

Duchenne dystrophy presents later with progressive weakness and calf pseudohypertrophy.

Why is "Spinal muscular atrophy type 3" not the answer?

Spinal muscular atrophy type 3 presents in later childhood with proximal weakness.

Why is "Osteogenesis imperfecta" not the answer?

Osteogenesis imperfecta causes fractures and blue sclerae, not multiple fixed contractures.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Paediatric orthopaedics: arthrogryposis multiplex congenita in Orthopaedics. In amyoplasia the limbs are symmetrically affected and intelligence is normal. Early stretching, splinting and corrective surgery improve function.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Paediatric orthopaedics: arthrogryposis multiplex congenita?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.