Ear and audiology: presbycusis management: practice question

A ENT question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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ENT · Ear and audiology: presbycusis management

Sample item

A 72-year-old man has bilateral symmetrical high-frequency sloping sensorineural loss of 45 dB at 4 kHz. He hears sounds but cannot understand speech in noisy places, and speech discrimination is reduced. What is the most appropriate first step in rehabilitation?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Binaural hearing aids with counselling and communication training

Presbycusis is a bilateral, symmetrical, high-frequency sloping sensorineural loss from age-related hair cell and neural degeneration. Binaural amplification with counselling is the first step. Cochlear implantation is reserved for severe to profound loss with poor aided speech scores.

Option by option

  • A. Intratympanic steroids

    Intratympanic steroids are used in sudden loss or Meniere disease and have no role here.

  • B. Binaural hearing aids with counselling and communication training (correct)

    Correct. Amplification is the standard first-line rehabilitation for age-related loss.

  • C. Unilateral cochlear implantation

    Implantation is for severe to profound loss with poor hearing aid benefit.

  • D. Stapedotomy

    Stapedotomy treats conductive loss from stapes fixation, which is not present.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this ENT question

What is the answer to this ENT question?

The best answer is B, Binaural hearing aids with counselling and communication training. Presbycusis is a bilateral, symmetrical, high-frequency sloping sensorineural loss from age-related hair cell and neural degeneration.

Why is "Intratympanic steroids" not the answer?

Intratympanic steroids are used in sudden loss or Meniere disease and have no role here.

Why is "Unilateral cochlear implantation" not the answer?

Implantation is for severe to profound loss with poor hearing aid benefit.

Why is "Stapedotomy" not the answer?

Stapedotomy treats conductive loss from stapes fixation, which is not present.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Ear and audiology: presbycusis management in ENT. Binaural amplification with counselling is the first step. Cochlear implantation is reserved for severe to profound loss with poor aided speech scores.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Ear and audiology: presbycusis management?

Learn tuning fork results and audiogram patterns by sketching them. Then use the flashcards and the other ENT questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.