Ankle injuries: Weber C fibular fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Ankle injuries: Weber C fibular fracture

Sample item

A man twists his ankle and radiographs show a fibular fracture 8 cm above the joint line with widening of the medial clear space. What is the implication?

AThe injury is an isolated lateral ligament sprainBOnly the deltoid ligament is affectedCThe ankle is stable and can be treated in a bootDThe syndesmosis is likely disrupted and needs stabilisation

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. The syndesmosis is likely disrupted and needs stabilisation

A fibular fracture above the syndesmosis (Weber C) is associated with tearing of the syndesmotic ligaments and often the deltoid ligament, producing mortise instability. Fixation of the fibula with assessment and stabilisation of the syndesmosis is usually needed. Weber A fractures below the syndesmosis are generally stable.

Option by option

A. The injury is an isolated lateral ligament sprain
A sprain would not fracture the fibula.
B. Only the deltoid ligament is affected
The medial widening reflects deltoid injury and the syndesmosis is also involved.
C. The ankle is stable and can be treated in a boot
A boot is for stable injuries such as Weber A.
D. The syndesmosis is likely disrupted and needs stabilisation (correct)
Correct. A high fibular fracture with medial widening indicates syndesmotic injury.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is D, The syndesmosis is likely disrupted and needs stabilisation. A fibular fracture above the syndesmosis (Weber C) is associated with tearing of the syndesmotic ligaments and often the deltoid ligament, producing mortise instability.

Why is "The injury is an isolated lateral ligament sprain" not the answer?

A sprain would not fracture the fibula.

Why is "Only the deltoid ligament is affected" not the answer?

The medial widening reflects deltoid injury and the syndesmosis is also involved.

Why is "The ankle is stable and can be treated in a boot" not the answer?

A boot is for stable injuries such as Weber A.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Ankle injuries: Weber C fibular fracture in Orthopaedics. Fixation of the fibula with assessment and stabilisation of the syndesmosis is usually needed. Weber A fractures below the syndesmosis are generally stable.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Ankle injuries: Weber C fibular fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.