Fractures: floating shoulder: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures: floating shoulder

Sample item

A motorcyclist has a displaced midshaft clavicle fracture and an ipsilateral fracture of the glenoid neck. Which term describes this injury and why does it matter?

AFrozen shoulder, because it causes capsular contractureBFloating shoulder, because the superior suspensory complex is doubly disruptedCRotator cuff arthropathy, because of chronic tearsDScapulothoracic dissociation, because of vascular avulsion only

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Floating shoulder, because the superior suspensory complex is doubly disrupted

A floating shoulder is an ipsilateral fracture of the clavicle and the scapular neck, so the glenoid and arm are no longer suspended from the axial skeleton by the clavicle-acromion strut. Marked displacement is treated surgically, often fixing the clavicle first. Nonoperative care is reserved for minimal displacement.

Option by option

A. Frozen shoulder, because it causes capsular contracture
Frozen shoulder is a capsular disorder and not a fracture pattern.
B. Floating shoulder, because the superior suspensory complex is doubly disrupted (correct)
Correct. Two breaks in the superior suspensory complex produce a floating shoulder.
C. Rotator cuff arthropathy, because of chronic tears
Rotator cuff arthropathy is a degenerative condition.
D. Scapulothoracic dissociation, because of vascular avulsion only
Scapulothoracic dissociation is a different injury with lateral scapular displacement.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Floating shoulder, because the superior suspensory complex is doubly disrupted. A floating shoulder is an ipsilateral fracture of the clavicle and the scapular neck, so the glenoid and arm are no longer suspended from the axial skeleton by the clavicle-acromion strut.

Why is "Frozen shoulder, because it causes capsular contracture" not the answer?

Frozen shoulder is a capsular disorder and not a fracture pattern.

Why is "Rotator cuff arthropathy, because of chronic tears" not the answer?

Rotator cuff arthropathy is a degenerative condition.

Why is "Scapulothoracic dissociation, because of vascular avulsion only" not the answer?

Scapulothoracic dissociation is a different injury with lateral scapular displacement.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures: floating shoulder in Orthopaedics. Marked displacement is treated surgically, often fixing the clavicle first. Nonoperative care is reserved for minimal displacement.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures: floating shoulder?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.