Shoulder: pectoralis major rupture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Shoulder: pectoralis major rupture

Sample item

A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a tearing sensation in the shoulder during a bench press. He has bruising of the arm and chest, and the anterior axillary fold has lost its contour. Which structure is torn?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Pectoralis major tendon at its humeral insertion

Pectoralis major rupture typically occurs in the eccentric phase of a bench press, with ecchymosis, loss of the anterior axillary fold and weak adduction and internal rotation. In young active patients the tendon is repaired to its insertion on the humerus. Rotator cuff tears do not alter the axillary fold.

Option by option

  • A. Long head of biceps at the labrum

    A long head biceps rupture causes a Popeye deformity of the arm.

  • B. Pectoralis major tendon at its humeral insertion (correct)

    Correct. Loss of the axillary fold with bruising indicates pectoralis major rupture.

  • C. Deltoid origin

    A deltoid origin avulsion would affect the lateral shoulder contour.

  • D. Supraspinatus tendon

    Supraspinatus tears weaken abduction and do not alter the axillary fold.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Pectoralis major tendon at its humeral insertion. Pectoralis major rupture typically occurs in the eccentric phase of a bench press, with ecchymosis, loss of the anterior axillary fold and weak adduction and internal rotation.

Why is "Long head of biceps at the labrum" not the answer?

A long head biceps rupture causes a Popeye deformity of the arm.

Why is "Deltoid origin" not the answer?

A deltoid origin avulsion would affect the lateral shoulder contour.

Why is "Supraspinatus tendon" not the answer?

Supraspinatus tears weaken abduction and do not alter the axillary fold.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder: pectoralis major rupture in Orthopaedics. In young active patients the tendon is repaired to its insertion on the humerus. Rotator cuff tears do not alter the axillary fold.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder: pectoralis major rupture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.