Joint disorders: Clutton joints: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Joint disorders: Clutton joints

Sample item

A 12-year-old with Hutchinson teeth and interstitial keratitis has painless symmetrical swelling of both knees with sterile effusions. What is the likely joint disorder?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Clutton joints of congenital syphilis

Clutton joints are painless symmetrical effusions of the knees in late congenital syphilis, accompanied by Hutchinson teeth, interstitial keratitis and deafness. The effusions are sterile and usually settle with antisyphilitic treatment. The other features of the syndrome make the diagnosis.

Option by option

  • A. Haemophilic arthropathy

    Haemophilic arthropathy follows recurrent bleeding in males.

  • B. Tuberculous arthritis

    Tuberculous arthritis is usually monoarticular and painful.

  • C. Clutton joints of congenital syphilis (correct)

    Correct. Symmetrical painless knee effusions with Hutchinson triad features indicate Clutton joints.

  • D. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

    Juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not cause teeth and eye changes of this type.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Clutton joints of congenital syphilis. Clutton joints are painless symmetrical effusions of the knees in late congenital syphilis, accompanied by Hutchinson teeth, interstitial keratitis and deafness.

Why is "Haemophilic arthropathy" not the answer?

Haemophilic arthropathy follows recurrent bleeding in males.

Why is "Tuberculous arthritis" not the answer?

Tuberculous arthritis is usually monoarticular and painful.

Why is "Juvenile idiopathic arthritis" not the answer?

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not cause teeth and eye changes of this type.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Joint disorders: Clutton joints in Orthopaedics. The effusions are sterile and usually settle with antisyphilitic treatment. The other features of the syndrome make the diagnosis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Joint disorders: Clutton joints?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.